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State PCS


  • 08 Aug 2024
  • 60 min read
Indian Polity

5th Anniversary of Abrogation of Article 370

For Prelims: Articles 370 & 35A, Supreme Court, Special Status, Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, Prime Minister's Development Package (PMDP), Industrial Development Scheme (IDS)

For Mains: Articles 370, Supreme Court’s decision, Reasons behind abrogation of Article 370, impact of abrogation of Article 370

Source: TH

Why in News?

Recently, the fifth anniversary of the revocation of Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was observed. On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked Article 370.

What was Article 370?

  • Article 370:
    • Article 370 of the Indian constitution granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
    • It was drafted by N Gopalaswami Ayyangar, a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and was added as a 'temporary provision' in 1949.
    • This article allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its constitution, flag, and autonomy over most matters except defence, foreign affairs, and communications.
    • The provision was based on the terms of the Instrument of Accession, which was signed by the ruler of Jammu and Kashmir, Hari Singh, in 1947 following an invasion by Pakistan.
  • Repeal of Article 370:
    • Presidential Order: In the 2019 Presidential orders, Parliament redefined the "constituent assembly of Jammu and Kashmir" to mean the "Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir."
      • By invoking the President's rule, Parliament then assumed the powers of the Legislative Assembly to revoke Article 370.
    • Resolutions in Parliament: On 5th and 6th August 2019, concurrent resolutions were passed by both houses of Parliament, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, respectively.
      • These resolutions revoked the remaining provisions of Article 370 and replaced them with new provisions.
    • Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019: It was passed by Parliament in 2019 to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
  • Supreme Court Judgment on Article 370:
    • The Supreme Court in December 2023, unanimously ruled to uphold the Centre's abrogation of Article 370, validating the two Presidential Orders which extended the applicability of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir and rendered Article 370 inoperative.

Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019

  • It divided Jammu and Kashmir into 2 Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
  • It repealed Article 370, which had granted Jammu and Kashmir a unique status.
  • Leh and Kargil districts were included in the Union Territory of Ladakh, while the remaining areas became part of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Five Lok Sabha seats were retained by Jammu and Kashmir, and one was transferred to Ladakh.
  • Legislature: The seats in the Legislative Assembly will be reserved for tribal and scheduled caste people to keep the proportion intact of their population in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
    • The Lt. Governors can nominate two women members for the Assembly to represent women if women are not sufficiently represented to justify equality between men and women.
    • The elected Legislative Assembly will be for 5 years, and the Lt. The Governor will summon the Assembly once every six months.
    • The Legislative Assembly has the right to pass a law for any given part of the Union Territory of J&K related to any of the matters listed in the Indian Constitutions State's List except for the "Police" and "Public Order."
    • Any matter specified in the Concurrent List will be applied to Indian Union Territories. Furthermore, Parliament will have the decision-making power to create laws for Jammu Kashmir and its Union Territory.

Supreme Court (SC) Judgement on Article 370

  • A Constitution Bench had upheld the abrogation of Article 370, leading to the reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir into two union territories and denuding it of its special privileges.
    • The SC observed that Jammu and Kashmir did not possess sovereignty, as Article 370 and the J&K Constitution indicated no need for a merger agreement to surrender its sovereignty.
    • The SC emphasised that Article 370 was intended as a temporary provision, as it was placed in Part XXI of the Constitution. The Instrument of Accession clarified that Article 1, stating "India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States," fully applied to J&K.
    • The SC agreed that the President can make irreversible changes, including dissolving the State Assembly, but these powers are subject to judicial and constitutional scrutiny.
    • The Court held that the Constitution of J&K is inoperative because the Indian Constitution now fully applies to Jammu and Kashmir.

Why was There a Need to Abrogate Article 370?

  • Integration and Development: The revocation of Article 370 enabled better access to resources, infrastructure development, and economic opportunities, aiding the region's integration with the rest of India.
  • National Security: Improved control and stricter security measures by the Indian government enhanced national security and counter-terrorism efforts in the region.
  • Ending Discrimination: Equal rights and opportunities were ensured for women, Dalits, and other marginalised groups under Indian laws, promoting social justice.
  • Legal Uniformity: The abrogation aimed to eliminate legal confusion and disparities by applying uniform laws across India, ensuring equal rights for all citizens.
  • Demographic Changes: Encouraging outside investment was seen as a means to stabilise the region economically and socially, though concerns about demographic shifts and property rights were noted.
  • Political Stability: The move aimed to foster a stable political environment, re-establish democratic processes, and improve local governance.

What has been the Impact of the Abrogation of Article 370?

  • Uniformity in Laws:
    • Changes in Domicile Laws: In April 2020, the Centre introduced the domicile clause for J&K, redefining residence and recruitment rules. This made any individual who has resided in J&K for 15 years or has studied for 7 years and appeared in class 10th/12th examination in J&K, eligible for a domicile certificate, replacing the previously issued Permanent Resident Certificates.
    • Changes in Land Laws: The government amended 14 land laws in the former state of J&K, repealing 12 of them, including the Jammu and Kashmir Alienation of Land Act, 1938, and the Big Landed Estates Abolition Act, 1950, which had protected land holdings for permanent residents alienating the non-permanent residents.
    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) (formerly called IPC) Comes into Force: With the revocation of J&K's special status, all central laws became applicable, and the erstwhile state's constitution became defunct.
      • The Ranbir Penal Code was replaced with the IPC (now BNS), and the prosecution wing was separated from the executive police in J&K.
    • State Investigation Agency (SIA) was Found: In November 2021, the J&K administration established the State Investigation Agency (SIA) as a specialised agency to coordinate with the National Investigation Agency (NIA) and other central agencies for the speedy and effective investigation and prosecution of terrorism-related cases.
  • Decline in Violence: Since the abrogation of Article 370, there has been a significant decline in terror activities, local militancy recruitment, and terrorist killings in J&K, with stone pelting, separatist strikes, and violent protests almost vanishing in the last five years.

  • Electoral Participation: J&K recorded its highest voter turnout in a 2024 Lok Sabha poll in 35 years, with the Kashmir Valley seeing a 30-point increase from 2019. The 2024 Parliamentary polls were the first major election in the Union Territory after Article 370's abrogation.
  • Tourism in Jammu and Kashmir: The region saw an unprecedented surge in tourism, attracting over 21.1 million visitors in 2023, boosting the local economy. There has been a tourism boom post-Covid-19 and after the abrogation of Article 370, which is expected to increase further.
  • Trade and Investments: Since the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, J&K attracted Rs 5,656 crore in investments across various sectors.
    • The New Central Sector Scheme for Industrial Development, launched in February 2021, spurred 310 investments in 2020-21, 175 in 2021-22, and 1,074 in 2022-23.
    • Lt Governor reported Rs 66,000 crore in private investment proposals within two years.
  • Enhanced Infrastructure: The government has also invested heavily in infrastructure development in Jammu and Kashmir. This includes projects such as the construction of new roads, bridges, tunnels, and power lines.
    • These improvements have made it easier for people to travel and do business within the region.

What new Challenges have Emerged in J&K and Ladakh after the Abrogation of Article 370?

  • Political Instability and Governance Issues: Detention of over 500 political leaders and communication blackouts created a governance vacuum and increased local alienation.
  • Security Concerns and Militancy: A resurgence in militant activities led to more recruitment and heightened security challenges, resulting in increased encounters and civilian casualties.
    • Example: Recent terrorist attack on an Indian Army and pilgrims convoy in Jammu.
    • The new trend in militancy in Jammu and Kashmir shows a shift towards local militants, increased use of modern technology, and weakened local intelligence due to troop redeployments to Eastern Ladakh.
  • Socio-Economic Disruption: Prolonged lockdowns caused economic contraction, especially in tourism, with over 80% decline in 2020, leading to higher unemployment and youth discontent.
  • Human Rights Violations: There has been observed a large number of cases of detentions, excessive force by security, and restricted freedom of expression, fueling local resentment.
  • Administrative Challenges in Ladakh: The bifurcation created administrative issues in Ladakh, with inadequate infrastructure and governance. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council is demanding inclusion under the Sixth Schedule and full statehood to gain greater autonomy in development and control over natural resources.
  • Cultural and Identity Concerns: Fears of cultural dilution and demographic changes due to the influx of outsiders, with regional parties voicing concerns over land and job security for locals.

Way Forward

  • Timeline and Elections: The Supreme Court suggests holding elections by September 2024. Key tasks include setting a clear timeline, overcoming logistical and security challenges, and ensuring fair elections.
    • Encourage broad political participation to ensure a smooth transition to statehood.
  • Security and Human Rights: Ensure civilian safety, address security concerns, and investigate any human rights violations independently to foster peace.
  • Economic and Social Integration: Focus on economic development, job creation, and infrastructure improvements. Promote social cohesion and dialogue, such as through Operation Sadbhavana by the Indian Army, and address remaining grievances.
    • Embrace Atal Bihari Vajpayee's vision of Kashmiriyat (Kashmir's inclusive culture), Insaniyat (humanitarianism), and Jamhooriyat (democracy) as the foundation for reconciliation efforts in the state.
    • Maintain transparency and trust through ongoing communication between the central government, state administration, and local people.
  • Monitoring and Adaptation: Continuously monitor the situation and adapt policies based on feedback to ensure a successful transition.

Drishti Mains Question:

Evaluate the implications of the abrogation of Article 370 on Jammu and Kashmir's socio-political landscape. Discuss progress over the past five years, and identify the remaining challenges for lasting peace and integration.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Years’ Questions (PYQs)

Prelims

Q. Siachen Glacier is situated to the (2020)

(a) East of Aksai Chin
(b) East of Leh
(c) North of Gilgit
(d) North of Nubra Valley

Ans: (d)

Q. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency? (2008)

(a) Kangra
(b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh
(d) Bhilwara

Ans: (b)


Mains:

Q. To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q. Analyze internal security threats and transborder crimes along Myanmar, Bangladesh and Pakistan borders including Line of Control (LoC). Also discuss the role played by various security forces in this regard. (2020)

Q. The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)


Indian History

82nd Anniversary of the QIM

Source: IE

August Kranti Day (August Revolution Day) is observed on the 8th August annually in India. In 2024, India celebrates the 82nd anniversary of the Quit India Movement (QIM).

  • It commemorates the historic launch of the QIM in 1942, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

What was QIM?

  • About: It was a pivotal moment in India’s struggle for independence from British colonial rule, which called for the immediate withdrawal of British forces from India.
    • It aimed to mobilise Indians in a non-violent civil disobedience campaign against British colonialism.
    • Internationally, it drew sympathetic voices within the British public and pressure from Allied powers during World War II.
  • Reasons for Starting QIM:
    • Failure of Cripps Mission (1942): Cripps Mission exposed Britain's unchanged attitude on constitutional advance and made it clear that any more silence would be tantamount to accepting the British right to decide the fate of Indians without consulting them.
      • It offered dominion status instead of complete independence. It provided provinces the right to secede which went against the principle of national unity.
    • Economic Impact of World War II: There was popular discontent because of rising prices and shortage of rice, salt etc. While the higher food prices hit the poor, the rich were hurt by excess profit tax. It got aggravated by gross mismanagement and deliberate profiteering.
    • Hasty British Evacuation from Southeast Asia: Refugees returning from Malaya and Burma after the Japanese invasion reported the collapse of British power in Southeast Asia and how British authorities abandoned Indian refugees.
      • This led to fears that Britain might similarly abandon India if Japan invaded.
    • Feeling of Imminent British Collapse: The news of Allied reverses and British withdrawals from Southeast Asia and Burma made people in India believe that British power was going to collapse soon.
    • Imminent Japanese invasion: The leaders felt it was essential to initiate a struggle because they believed the people were losing morale and might not resist if Japan invaded.
  • Quit India Resolution:
    • The Congress Working Committee adopted the 'Quit India' Resolution on 14th July 1942 at Wardha.
    • The All India Congress Committee (AICC) accepted this resolution with some modifications, on 8th August 1942 at Gowalia Tank in Bombay and Gandhiji was named the leader of the struggle.
      • The meeting also resolved to:
        • demand an immediate end to British rule in India.
        • declare commitment of free India to defend itself against all types of Fascism and imperialism.
        • form a provisional Government of India after the British withdrawal.
        • sanction a civil disobedience movement against British rule.
      • Gandhi was named the leader of the struggle
  • On this occasion, Gandhi delivered his famous "Do or Die" speech, arguing that "We shall either free India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery.”

How did the Government Respond to the Spread of QIM?

  • Spread of the Movement:
    • Public on Rampage: The general public attacked symbols of authority. Satyagrahis offered themselves up to arrest, bridges were blown up, railway tracks were removed, and telegraph lines were cut.
    • Underground Activity: The main personalities taking up underground activity were Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta and R.P. Goenka. Usha Mehta started an underground radio in Bombay.
      • Due to the arrest of major leaders, a young and till then relatively unknown Aruna Asaf Ali presided over the AICC session on 9th August and hoisted the flag, later the Congress party was banned.
    • Parallel Governments: Parallel governments were established in Ballia (Uttar Pradesh), Tamluk (Bengal) and Satara (Maharashtra).
    • Extent of Mass Participation: Youth, women, workers and peasants remained at the forefront.
  • British Government Response:
    • In the early hours of 9th August 1942, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations.
      • It produced an instantaneous reaction among the people. There were clashes with authority, strikes, public demonstrations and processions in various parts of the country.
    • The Government responded by gagging the press. The newspaper National Herald and weekly journal Harijan ceased publication for the entire duration of the struggle, others for shorter periods.
    • Agitating crowds were lathi-charged, tear-gassed, and fired upon. The number of those killed is estimated at 10,000.
      • The military took over many cities; police and secret service reigned supreme.
    • Rebellious villages were fined heavily, and in many villages, mass flogging was done.

Parallel Governments during QIM

  • Ballia, Uttar Pradesh: It was formed by Chittu Pandey and provided healthcare, education, and other services to the people.
  • Satara, Maharashtra: Known as “Prati Sarkar,” it was organized by leaders including Y.B. Chavan, Nana Patil, and others. 'Gandhi marriages' were organized.
  • Tamluk, Bengal: It was known as Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar and was set up by Ambika Chakrabarty.

Was QIM a Spontaneous Outburst, or an Organized Movement?

  • Spontaneous Nature of QIM:
  • Viceroy Linlithgow described it as "by far the most serious rebellion since 1857".
    • It was violent and totally uncontrolled as the entire upper echelon of the Congress leadership was behind bars even before it began.
    • And therefore, it is also characterised as a "spontaneous revolution", as "no preconceived plan could have produced such instantaneous and uniform results".
  • Organised Nature of QIM:
    • Radical Movements: In the past two decades, the radical mass movements led by Congress-affiliated groups like the AITUC (All India Trade Union Congress), CSP (Congress Socialist Party ), AIKS (All India Kisan Sabha), and Forward Block had set the stage for such a conflagration.
    • Twelve Point Programme: Before 9th August 1942, Congress leaders drafted a twelve-point program that included Gandhian satyagraha methods, industrial strikes, railway and telegraph disruptions, tax refusal, and establishing a parallel government.
    • Past Preparation: In the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34), while Gandhi initiated the struggle with the Dandi March and salt law violation, local leaders and people decided whether to stop land revenue payments, defy forest laws, picket liquor shops, or pursue other aspects of the program.
      • These previous experiences of the masses enriched QIM.
    • Mobilisation in Countryside: In East U.P. and Bihar, the areas of the most intense activity in 1942 were precisely the ones in which considerable mobilisation and organisational work had been carried out from 1937 onwards.

What were the Lessons and Significance of the QIM?

  • Lessons from QIM:
    • For Indian Masses: To the Indian masses in 1942, Gandhi and the Congress were symbols of liberation, not sources of ideological constraint.
    • For Congress: The suppression of QIM by the government discredited the left-wingers (like followers of Forward Block) within Congress who had been demanding violent action against the government.
      • Now dominated by moderates and right-wing members, Congress strongly opposed the popular militancy, favouring a return to discipline and order, and advocated for a negotiated settlement over confrontation.
    • For the British: They realised it was difficult to manage militant mass movements without wartime emergency powers.
      • After the war, maintaining control by force would be costly, leading to a greater willingness to accept a negotiated and orderly withdrawal.
  • Significance of QIM:
    • It placed the demand for independence on the immediate agenda of the national movement. After Quit India there could be no retreat.
    • Constructive work became the main form of Congress activity, with a special emphasis on the reorganisation of the Congress machinery.
    • The Congress leaders were released to participate in the Simla Conference in June 1945. That marked the end of the phase of confrontation that had existed since August 1942.

Conclusion

The Quit India Movement (QIM) marked a crucial turning point in India's struggle for independence. Despite the repression by British authorities, the movement galvanised widespread public support, leading to mass protests and parallel governments. QIM intensified the demand for freedom, ultimately hastening the end of British colonial rule in India.

Drishti Mains Question:

How did the Quit India Movement (QIM) propel the Indian National Movement to a point of no return, making complete independence inevitable?

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Years’ Questions (PYQs)

Prelims

Q. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)

(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
(c)The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over

Ans: (a)

Q. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: (2017)

  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 1 – 2– 3
(b) 2 – 1 – 3
(c) 3 – 2 – 1
(d) 3 – 1 – 2

Ans: (c)

Q.Quit India Movement was launched in response to (2013)

(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan

Ans: (b)

Q. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for (2011)

(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans: (a)

Q. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942? (2011)

(a) It was a nonviolent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labor class in general

Ans: (b)

Q. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in (2009)

(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement

Ans: (c)

Q. With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or Die” associated? (2009)

(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Ans: (d)


Mains

Q. Discuss the role of women in the freedom struggle, especially during the Gandhian phase. (2016)

Q. In what ways did the naval mutiny prove to be the last nail in the coffin of British colonial aspirations in India? (2014)


Science & Technology

Gender Eligibility Row at Paris Olympics 2024

For Prelims: Paris Olympics 2024, International Boxing Association’s(IBA), International Olympic Committee, Disorders of Sex Development, Turner Syndrome

For Mains: Issues Faced Females in Sports, Issues Related to Women, Human Rights and Sports

Source: IE

Why in News?

The recent boxing match at the Paris Olympics 2024 between Algeria’s Imane Khelif and Italy’s Angela Carini has ignited a significant controversy, particularly concerning gender and eligibility in women’s sports.

Why did Imane Khelif’s Win Spark a Controversy?

  • Background of the Controversy: Khelif's quick victory led to a wave of criticism, with many accusing her of being a “biological man (due to disorders of sex development)” despite official confirmation of her gender identity as female. Critics accused Khelif of having an “unfair advantage”.
  • International Boxing Association’s Stance: In 2023, Khelif and another boxer, Lin Yu-ting, were barred from competing in the International Boxing Association’s (IBA) World Championship in New Delhi due to a “gender eligibility” test.
    • The details of this test remain confidential. However, both athletes are competing at the Paris Olympics due to the IBA’s derecognition by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 2023.
    • The IOC's current eligibility criteria are based solely on the gender stated in an athlete’s passport, which Khelif’s identifies as female.
  • IOC’s Response: The IOC defended its decision, stating that all boxers in the Olympics had met the competition’s eligibility criteria.
    • The IOC criticised the IBA’s decision as “arbitrary” and expressed dismay at the abuse directed at Khelif and Lin Yu-ting, emphasizing that misleading information was being spread.

International Olympic Committee

  • The IOC is a non-governmental international organisation based in Lausanne, Switzerland that came into existence in 1894. The IOC aims to ensure the regular holding of the Olympic Games and foster Olympism and the Olympic movement.
    • Olympism is a philosophy that blends sport, culture, education, and international cooperation, emphasizing the joy of effort, the educational value of good examples, social responsibility, and respect for universal ethical principles.
    • The goal of the Olympic Movement is to contribute to building a peaceful and better world by educating youth through sports practised in accordance with Olympism and its values.
      • The three main constituents of the Olympic Movement are the IOC, the International Sports Federations (“IFs”) and the National Olympic Committees (“NOCs”).
  • The IOC decides the rules and regulations of the Olympic Games and when and where the next Olympics event will be held.
  • The IOC is a permanent organisation that elects its own members, with each member speaking French or English and being a citizen of or residing in a country with a National Olympic Committee.
    • The IOC is the final authority on all questions concerning the Olympic games and the Olympic movement.

Why is Gender Eligibility a Contentious Issue in Women’s Sports?

  • Sex and Athletic Performance: Traditionally, sports are divided based on sex due to physiological differences, with men typically having advantages in muscle mass, strength, and endurance.
    • The SRY gene on the Y chromosome plays a significant role in testosterone production, which has been linked to these athletic advantages.
    • Studies, such as a 2017 paper in Endocrine Reviews, suggest that testosterone levels are a major factor in athletic performance differences between sexes.
  • Disorders of Sex Development (DSDs): Some individuals with female reproductive organs may have XY chromosomes due to conditions like Swyer syndrome, one of many “Disorders of Sex Development”, or DSDs. complicating the discussion on gender eligibility.
    • There is debate on whether such athletes should be excluded from women’s sports to ensure fairness, given their potential for higher testosterone levels and related advantages.

Note:

  • A sex chromosome is a type of chromosome involved in sex determination. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes of which 22 are identical in men and women; one, the sex chromosome, is different.
  • Females have two X chromosomes (XX) while males have one X and one Y (XY).

What are Disorders of Sexual Development (DSDs)?

  • Definition: DSDs encompass a spectrum of conditions where individuals may have physical characteristics of both sexes or atypical development of sexual characteristics. These differences can be evident at birth, during puberty, or later in life.
  • Examples:
    • Individuals with XY chromosomes but genitals that appear female.
    • Individuals with XX chromosomes but genitals that appear male.
    • Individuals with both ovarian and testicular tissue.
    • Typical sex organs but with an abnormal chromosomal arrangement that affects growth and development.
  • Types of DSDs:
    • Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS): A genetic condition where an individual with XY chromosomes is resistant to male hormones (androgens), resulting in the development of female physical traits despite having male genetic makeup.
    • Klinefelter Syndrome: A chromosomal condition in males characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to symptoms such as reduced testosterone levels, infertility, and physical and developmental differences.
    • Turner Syndrome: A chromosomal disorder in females caused by the complete or partial absence of one X chromosome, resulting in short stature, infertility, and various physical and developmental abnormalities.

How do Sports Federations Address Gender Eligibility?

  • IOC’s Approach: Since 2021, the IOC has allowed international sports federations to develop their own eligibility rules based on an “evidence-based approach” that balances fairness, inclusion, and non-discrimination.
    • Previously, testosterone levels were a primary determinant for eligibility, but recent policies emphasize gender as stated in official documents.
  • Specific Regulations by Federations: World Athletics, for example, still uses testosterone levels as a criterion for athletes with DSDs, requiring them to maintain levels below 2.5 nmol/L for at least 24 months.
    • Other sports bodies, like Fédération internationale de natation(FINA), the International Cycling Union, and the International Rugby Union have instituted varying bans on trans women athletes based on testosterone levels, though the need for such bans across sports has been questioned given the different skill sets required.
  • Open Category Debate: Some have proposed an “open category” for trans athletes to address these concerns.
    • However, the practicality of such a category is debated due to the limited number of elite-level trans athletes and the challenges of establishing fair competition standards.

Way Forward

  • Biomarkers: Identify reliable biomarkers that can accurately assess athletic potential without infringing on athletes' privacy or dignity.
    • A biomarker is an objective measurement that can capture the state of a cell or organism at a given time.
    • Conduct longitudinal studies on the effects of puberty blockers, hormone therapy, and other interventions on athletic performance. Identify reliable biomarkers for assessing athletic potential.
  • Athlete Education: Provide athletes with accurate information about sex, gender, and eligibility rules to promote informed decision-making.
  • Transparent and Inclusive Policies: Sports federations should develop transparent and inclusive policies that balance fairness, inclusion, and non-discrimination. This includes clear guidelines on eligibility criteria and the rationale behind them.
  • Collaboration Among Federations: International sports federations should collaborate to harmonise their policies and ensure consistency across different sports. This can help prevent confusion and ensure fair competition.
  • Respect for Human Rights: Prioritise the protection of human rights, including the right to participate in sports, without discrimination.

Drishti Mains Question:

Q. Discuss the challenges and ethical considerations associated with gender eligibility in sports. How do these issues impact fairness and inclusivity?

UPSC Civil Services Examination, Previous Year Question (PYQ)

Prelims:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021)

  1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
  2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
  3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)


Important Facts For Prelims

Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024

Source: IE

Why in News?

The Indian government announced the first-ever Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) awardees 2024, marking a significant shift in the country’s approach to recognising scientific achievements.

  • The awards will be presented on 23rd August, first National Space Day, celebrating the milestone of Chandrayaan-3’s moon landing.

What are the Key Facts about Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar?

  • About: The RVP is a prestigious set of awards that recognize and encourage significant achievements by scientists, technologists, and innovators of Indian origin, including Persons of Indian Origin (PIO), whether working in India or abroad.
    • These awards honour individuals who have made distinguished contributions through impactful research, innovation, or discovery that benefits Indian communities or society.
    • The RVP is being introduced for the first time in 2024. It was established to replace the existing science awards, including the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, to provide a more inclusive and updated recognition system.
      • The new awards allow for a more comprehensive acknowledgement of achievements.
    • These awards shall be announced on 11th May (National Technology Day) every year. The Award Ceremony for all categories of awards will be held on National Space Day.
    • RVP is awarded in various categories such as Physical Sciences, Chemical Sciences, Biological Sciences, Mathematical Sciences, Earth & Atmospheric Sciences, and Engineering Sciences.
  • Categories of the Awards:
    • Vigyan Ratna (VR): It honours lifetime achievements and substantial contributions in any field of science and technology. Up to 3 awards are given each year.
      • Eligibility: Distinguished scientists and technologists with a career of significant achievements.
    • Vigyan Shri (VS): It recognizes distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology. Up to 25 awards are given each year.
      • Eligibility: Individuals with notable achievements in their respective scientific or technological domains.
    • Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB): It recognizes and encourages young scientists under 45 years of age who have made exceptional contributions. Up to 25 awards are given each year.
      • Eligibility: Young scientists who have demonstrated exceptional research or innovation.
    • Vigyan Team (VT): It awards a team of three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators for exceptional collaborative contributions. Up to 3 awards for teams of three or more.
      • Eligibility: Teams with outstanding achievements in any field of science and technology.
  • Benefits of the Award: Each awardee receives a Sanad (Certificate) signed by the President of India.
    • A brochure with the citation and photograph of the awardees is released on the ceremony day. Decorations are given to the next of kin in case of posthumous awards.

Who are the Key Awardees of the 2024 Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar?

  • Vigyan Ratna: Awarded to G. Padmanabhan, who is recognized for his lifetime achievements in biological sciences, particularly for his work on malaria parasites. He is a former director of the Indian Institute of Science and has previously received the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan.
  • Vigyan Team: Chandrayaan-3 Team was awarded with Vigyan Team for their successful mission landing India's first spacecraft on the Moon in 2023, a landmark in India's space exploration history.
  • Vigyan Shri: Annapurni Subramaniam (formation and evolution of star clusters and galaxies), Jayant Bhalchandra Udgaonkar (biology), Naba Kumar Mondal (particle physics).
  • Vigyan Yuva: Vivek Polshettiwar (carbon capture technologies), Urbasi Sinha (quantum research), Roxy Mathew Koll (climate science).

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question (PYQ)

Prelims

Q. For outstanding contribution to which one of the following fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given? (2009)

(a) Literature
(b) Performing Arts
(c) Science
(d) Social Service

Ans: (c)


Important Facts For Prelims

Weigh-in Controversy at the Paris Olympics

Source: IE

Why in News?

Recently, Vinesh Phogat (Indian Wrestler) failed to make a crucial second weight cut, which prevented her from participating in the gold medal bout, thus ending her chances of medaling at the Paris Olympics. She was 100 grams overweight at the weigh-in.

What is Controversy Related to Weigh-in at the Paris Olympics?

  • Background: She had been participating in the 53 kg category until recently before she made the switch to 50 kg at the Paris Olympics.
    • Phogat’s usual weight is around 55-56 kg, which she has to cut to 50 kg on the days of competition.
    • She is already lean due to intense training, with very little body fat left to lose.
  • Methods of Weight Cutting: Athletes typically use various methods.
    • Dehydration: Reducing water intake and using saunas or sweat suits to lose water weight.
    • Dietary Restrictions: Limiting calorie intake and following low-carbohydrate diets.
    • Exercise: Engaging in intense workouts to burn calories and lose weight quickly.

What is Weigh-in at Paris Olympics 2024?

  • UWW Rules on Weigh-ins: According to United World Wrestling’s (UWW) Olympics weigh-in rules, wrestlers have to weigh in on the morning of their competition.
    • Athletes must weigh in at or below the category limit on all competition days. Olympic wrestling competitions occur over two days, requiring weigh-ins on both days.
    • Phogat made weight on the first day but failed to meet the 50 kg limit on the second day, resulting in her disqualification.
  • Consequences of Failing the Weigh-in: Athletes failing to weigh in on either day are disqualified and ranked last, without rank, unless injured on the first day.
  • Injury Exception: Injured athletes on Day 1 are exempt from the second weigh-in and can retain their results. Injuries after Day 1 still require attending the second weigh-in.
  • Format Change for Olympic Wrestling: Before 2017, Olympic wrestling competitions in each weight category occurred in one day, with athletes weighing in only once. In 2017, UWW changed to a two-day format to improve fairness and athlete safety, requiring athletes to weigh in on both days of competition.

How Can a Wrestler Gain More Weight in Kilograms after Correcting on Day 1?

  • Rehydration and Recovery: After Day 1 weigh-in, wrestlers rehydrate and replenish with fluids, electrolytes, and carbohydrates, regaining much of the lost weight.
  • Temporary Nature of Weight Loss: Weight lost via dehydration is mostly water weight, regained once normal hydration and eating resume, leading to higher Day 2 weight.
  • Impact on Performance: While rehydration restores energy, rapid weight changes can impact performance, causing fatigue, cramps, and reduced endurance if not managed well.
  • Strategic Advantage: Some wrestlers use weight cutting to gain a competitive edge by weighing more on competition day, enhancing power and strength against less-depleted opponents.

Note:

  • In another development related to Paris Olympic, Swapnil Kusale won the bronze medal in the men's 50-metre rifle three positions event.

Read More: Manu Bhaker Wins Olympic Bronze, India's Ambitious Bid to Host the 2036 Olympic Games


Important Facts For Prelims

Muradabad ki Pahadi

Source: IE

Why in News?

Muradabad ki Pahadi, a historical site in Delhi, has recently come into the spotlight. Named after the 14th-century Sufi saint Syed Murad Ali, this site features two mosques from different historical periods, attracting the interest of historians and locals alike.

What are the Key Facts About Muradabad ki Pahadi?

  • The site features two mosques from the Tughlaq and Lodi dynasties, reflecting their distinct architectural styles.
    • Tughlaq-era mosque known as Qasai Wala Gumbad.
    • Lodhi-era mosque known as Shahi Masjid, features a lotus kalash.
  • Syed Murad Ali's tomb is situated here, adorned with intricate arches and ornate doorways.
  • The site now houses the Abdul Mannan Academy, a madarsa that serves the community and continues to preserve the site’s heritage.

Note:

  • Muradabad ki Pahadi has nothing to do with the city of Moradabad, named after Prince Murad Baksh, son of Emperor Shah Jahan.

What are the Key Features of Tughlaq Architecture?

  • Tughlaq architecture is known for its sturdy and solid construction. Buildings featured sloping walls, a technique known as batter, to support the increased height and loftiness of the domes.
    • The Tughlaqs innovatively combined the principles of the arch, lintel, and beam in their constructions.
  • Decorative items such as the water pot and lotus, derived from Hindu motifs, were incorporated into Tughlaq architecture, resulting in the Indo-Islamic style.
  • Notable Tughlaq Constructions:
    • Tughlaqabad: Founded by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Tughlaqabad was the third city of Delhi, combining a city, fort, and palace. It marked the beginning of large-scale urban complexes.
    • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq's Tomb: This tomb introduced new architectural trends, including the use of a high platform for elevation, a white marble dome, and red sandstone for beautification. The pointed or ‘Tartar’ dome design became a hallmark of Indo-Islamic architecture.
    • Jahanpanah: Built by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, Jahanpanah was the fourth city of Delhi, emphasising the dynasty’s urban planning prowess.
    • Firuzabad: Constructed by Firuz Shah Tughlaq in 1354, Firuzabad included notable structures such as Kushk-i-Firuz palace and Kotla Firuz Shah citadel. Firuz Shah also added two more storeys to the Qutub Minar and constructed Hauz Khas.

What are the Key Features of Lodi Architecture?

  • The Lodis utilised both the arch and lintel-and-beam methods in their constructions, showcasing their mastery of diverse architectural principles.
  • They adopted elements from Rajasthani and Gujarati architecture, including balconies, kiosks, and eaves.
  • Only tombs were commissioned during the Lodi period (1451–1526) featuring hard, bare, octagonal designs about 15 metres in diameter, with a sloping verandah.
    • Many Lodi tombs were set on elevated platforms and surrounded by gardens, creating a visually striking and serene environment.
  • A major innovation under the Lodis was the introduction of double dome architecture. This technique involved constructing a dome with an inner and outer shell, with a distinct space between them.
    • The double domes were used to strengthen the structure and reduce the dome's inner height.
  • Notable Lodi Construction:
    • Lodi Gardens: This expansive garden complex in Delhi is a notable example of the Lodi architectural style. It includes several significant structures.
      • Tomb of Sikander Lodi: Renowned for its double dome architecture, this tomb exemplifies the innovative design of the Lodi period.
      • Tomb of Mohammed Shah: Another prominent tomb in Lodi Gardens, showcasing the elevated platform design characteristic of Lodi architecture.

UPSC Civil Services Examination, Previous Year Question (PYQ)

Q. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: (2018)

  1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
  2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)


Rapid Fire

72% of Taxpayers Opted for New Tax Regime

Source: TH

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) reported that 72% of Income Tax (IT) assessees chose the new tax regime in 2023-24.

  • Out of the 7.28 crore IT returns filed for the assessment year 2024-25, 5.27 crore were under the new regime.
  • Increase in I-T Return Filings: Assessment Year 2024-25 saw a 7.5% rise in filings, with nearly 58.6 lakh returns from first-time filers, indicating an expanding tax base.
  • Changes in Tax Structure:
    • The new tax regime was made the default option, with tax slabs reduced from 6 to 5.
    • The tax-free income limit increased from Rs 2.5 lakh to Rs 3 lakh.
    • The tax rebate limit under the new regime was raised from Rs 5 lakh to Rs 7 lakh.
    • The standard deduction was increased from Rs 50,000 to Rs 75,000.
  • India's net direct tax collections increased by 17.7% in 2023-24, reaching Rs. 19.58 lakh crores, largely due to a rise in personal income taxes, which now comprise 53.3% of total tax revenue, up from 50.06% in 2022-23.
  • Direct taxes are the taxes an individual pays directly to the government, such as income tax, poll tax, land tax, and personal property tax.

Read more...


Rapid Fire

Preamble Removed from new NCERT Textbooks

Source: TH

The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has dropped the Preamble to the Constitution from several Class 3 and 6 textbooks issued in 2024.

Preamble:

Read more...


Rapid Fire

Bailey Bridge

Source: IE

The Indian Army's Madras Engineer Group assembled a 190-foot Bailey bridge in Chooralmala, Wayanad, Kerala to facilitate the movement of vehicles and machinery following devastating landslides.

  • The Bailey bridge enables the transport of men, heavy machinery, and ambulances in disaster-hit areas.
  • A Bailey bridge is a type of modular bridge whose parts are pre-built, so they can be put together quickly as needed. Donald Coleman Bailey an english civil engineeris credited with inventing it during World War II.
  • The Indian armed forces inherited the Bailey bridge design from the British, using it in the 1971 war with Pakistan and in various disaster relief efforts, such as after the 2021 Uttarakhand flash floods.

Read more...


Rapid Fire

Fast Tracking BIMSTEC Free Trade Agreement

Source: PIB

The Indian Minister of Commerce & Industry called for faster negotiations of the BIMSTEC Free Trade Agreement (FTA) at the BIMSTEC Business Summit in New Delhi.

  • He called for a preferential trade agreement to begin with to foster intra-regional trade and investment and enhance regional competitiveness.
  • India’s total trade with BIMSTEC countries amounted to USD 44.32 billion in 2023-24.
    • Thailand was India’s largest trading partner within the bloc, with exports worth USD 5.04 billion and imports at USD 9.91 billion.
    • Bangladesh followed, with exports of USD 11.06 billion and imports of USD 1.84 billion, creating a trade balance of USD9.22 billion in India’s favour.

BIMSTEC Free Trade Agreement (FTA):

  • It was signed in February 2004.
  • It includes provision for negotiation of FTA on goods, services, investment and economic cooperation amongst the member countries.
  • BIMSTEC countries constituted the Trade Negotiating Committee to carry forward the negotiations in accordance with the Framework
    Agreement.

Read more...


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