Full Length Test-3 (Modern History) (Date : 09-04-2023)
Question 1:
Which of the following is correct about real British motive behind Bengal partition?
Bengal had become too big to be administered, hence administrative convenience was the reason behind partition.
Partition would help in the development of Assam.
British desire to weaken Bengal, the nerve centre of Indian nationalism.
Dacca could become the capital of the new Hindu majority province.
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- The official reason given for the partition was that Bengal had become too big to be administered and that partition would help in the development of Assam. However, the real motive behind the partition plan was seen to be the British desire to weaken Bengal, the nerve centre of Indian nationalism. This was sought to be achieved by putting the Bengalis under two administrations by dividing them on the basis of language and religion, and reducing the Bengalis to a minority in Bengal itself.
- The viceroy at that time, Lord Curzon, tried to woo the Muslims by arguing that Dacca could become the capital of the new Muslim majority province, which would provide them with a unity not experienced by them since the days of old Muslim viceroys and kings. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 2:
Consider the following regarding Lucknow Session (1916):
- This session saw a pact between congress and Muslim league to present joint constitutional demands to the government.
- Bengal partition was one of the reasons for league’s new anti-imperialist position in its demands to government.
- The session saw readmission of Tilak into congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The Lucknow session (1916) of the Indian National Congress, presided over by a Moderate, Ambika Charan Majumdar, finally readmitted the Extremists led by Tilak to the Congress fold. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Another significant development to take place at Lucknow was the coming together of the Muslim League and the Congress and the presentation of common demands by them to the government. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- This happened at a time when the Muslim League, now dominated by the younger militant nationalists, was coming closer to the Congress objectives and turning increasingly anti-imperialist.
- One of them being Annulment of Bengal partition. Annulment of partition of Bengal in 1911 had annoyed those sections of the Muslims who had supported the partition. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 3:
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Independence Act, 1947:
- The Act provided for the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with effect from August 15, 1947.
- Each dominion was to have a prime minister to be responsible for the effective operation of the Act.
- The existing Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States were to continue functioning till a new constitution was adopted by each dominion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- On July 5, 1947 the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act which was based on the Mountbatten Plan, and the Act got royal assent on July 18, 1947. The Act was implemented on August 15, 1947.
- The Act provided for the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with effect from August 15, 1947. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Each dominion was to have a governor general to be responsible for the effective operation of the Act. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The constituent assembly of each new dominion was to exercise the powers of the legislature of that dominion, and the existing Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States were to be automatically dissolved. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Question 4:
Consider the following statements:
- Beginning of 18th Century saw rise of state of Bengal under Murshid Kuli Khan.
- Murshid Kuli broke ties with Mughal emperors and stopped paying tributes to them.
- Mir Kasim planned a military coup with Jagat Seth which led to Siraj Ud Daula’s defeat in Battle of Plassey.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- In 1700, Murshid Quli Khan became the Dewan of Bengal and ruled till his death in 1727. He was succeeded by his son-in-law, Shujauddin, who ruled till 1739. After that, for a year (1739–40), Sarfaraz Khan, an incapable son of Murshid Quli Khan, became the ruler; he was killed by Alivardi Khan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Alivardi Khan ruled till 1756 and also stopped paying tributes to the Mughal emperor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- During reign of Siraj Ud Daula, Clive forged a secret alliance with the traitors of the nawab—Mir Jafar, Rai Durlabh, Jagat Seth (an influential banker of Bengal), and Omichand. Under the deal, Mir Jafar was to be made the nawab, who, in turn, would reward the Company for its services. The secret alliance of the Company with the conspirators further strengthened the English position.
- So, the English victory in the Battle of Plassey (June 23, 1757) was decided before the battle was even fought. Due to the conspiracy of the nawab’s officials, the 50,000-strong force of Siraj was defeated by a handful of Clive’s forces. Siraj-ud-Daulah was captured and murdered by the order of Mir Jafar’s son, Miran. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Question 5:
Which of the following is correct about Revolt of 1857?
Black hole tragedy took place in Bengal during the revolt.
Last Mughal emperor Bahadur shah urged Indian rulers to organize a confederacy of Indian states to fight British.
Revolt saw widespread participation including peasantry, religious leaders and educated middle class.
Post revolt British government took active steps for reforming socio-religious evils of the Indian society.
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Black hole tragedy took place in bengal during Siraj Ud Daula’s reign in 1756.
- Bahadur Shah, after initial vacillation, wrote letters to all the chiefs and rulers of India, urging them to organise a confederacy of Indian states to fight and replace the British regime. This spontaneous raising of the last Mughal king to the leadership of the country was a recognition of the fact that the long reign of the Mughal dynasty had become the traditional symbol of India’s political unity. Hence, option B is correct.
- It is the widespread participation in the revolt by the peasantry, the artisans, shopkeepers, day labourers, zamindars, religious mendicants, priests, and civil servants which gave it real strength.
- However, Educated Indian did not join the revolt. They viewed this revolt as backward-looking, supportive of the feudal order, and as a reaction of traditional conservative forces to modernity; these people had high hopes that the British would usher in an era of modernisation.
- Post revolt , Queen’s proclamation(1858) promised freedom of religion without interfernce of british officials and that old customs and practices will be given due regard. This translated into unwillingness of the British to reform the evils of society.
Question 6:
Consider the following statements:
- Akali movement of 1921 was a communal movement aimed at demand for better representation to Sikhs in political institutions.
- It was a successor movement of Singh Sabha movement which countered conversion activities of both Christian missionaries and Brahm Samajists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- The Akali Movement (also known as Gurudwara Reform Movement) was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha Movement. It aimed at liberating the Sikh gurudwaras from the control of corrupt Udasi mahants (the post having become hereditary). These mahants were a loyalist and reactionary lot, enjoying government patronage.
- The government tried its repressive policies against the non-violent non-cooperation satyagraha launched by the Akalis in 1921, but had to bow before popular demands; it passed the Sikh Gurudwaras Act in 1922 (amended in 1925) which gave the control of gurudwaras to the Sikh masses to be administered through Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) as the apex body.
- The Akali Movement was a regional movement but not a communal one. The Akali leaders played a notable role in the national liberation struggle though some dissenting voices were heard occasionally. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Singh Sabha Movement was founded at Amritsar in 1873 with a two-fold objective: (i) to make available modern western education to the Sikhs, and (ii) to counter the proselytising activities of Christian missionaries as well as the Brahmo Samajists, Arya Samajists, and Muslim maulvis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 7:
‘Satya Prakash’, a weekly paper started in 19th century which advocated amelioration of plight of widows, was published by:
Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar
Dayanand Saraswati
Karsandas Mulji
Vishnu Shastri Pandit
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Dayanand Saraswati- Satyarth Prakash(Book)
- Karsandas Mulji-Satya Prakash (Weekly Gujrati paper)
- Hence, option C is correct.
Question 8:
Consider the following statements:
- Hyderabad was founded by Zulfikar Khan.
- The founder of the independent principality of Awadh was Burhan-ul-Mulk.
- Martanda Varma established an independent state of Kerala with Travancore as his capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Regional Kingdoms:
- Hyderabad: The founder of the Asaf-Jah house of Hyderabad was Chin Qalich Khan, popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk. It was Zulfikar Khan who had first conceived the idea of an independent state in the Deccan. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Awadh: The founder of the independent principality of Awadh was Saadat Khan, popularly known as Burhan-ul-Mulk. Saadat Khan was a Shia. He had joined in a conspiracy against the Sayyid brothers, which resulted in his being given an increased mansab. Later, driven out of the court, he was prompted to found a new independent state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Kerala: Martanda Varma established an independent state of Kerala with Travancore as his capital. He extended the boundaries of his state from Kanyakumari to Cochin. He made efforts to organise his army along the Western model and adopted various measures to develop his state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 9:
Consider the following statements:
- The Cabinet Mission had prolonged discussions with leaders of all parties on the issues of interim government.
- Rani Gaidinliu, a Naga spiritual leader, was released by the cabinet Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946. It had prolonged discussions with Indian leaders of all parties and groups on the issues of:
- Interim government, and
- Principles and procedures for framing a new constitution giving freedom to India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Manipur and Nagaland: These areas took a brave part in the Civil Disobedient movement. At the young age of 13, Rani Gaidinliu, a Naga spiritual leader, raised the banner of revolt against foreign rule. She outwitted the British till October 1932 when she was finally captured. She was later sentenced to life imprisonment. It was the Interim Government of India set up in 1946 that finally ordered her release from Tura jail. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Question 10:
Consider the following Pairs:
|
Theory |
Propagator |
1. |
Safety Valve Theory |
Lala Lajpat Rai |
2. |
Conspiring Theory |
G.K. Gokhale |
3. |
Lightning Conductor Theory |
R.P. Dutt |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
One Pair only
Two pairs only
All Pairs correctly matched
None of the Above
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- In the 1870s and 1880s, A.O. Hume gathered prominent intellectuals to establish an all-India organization called the Indian National Conference (INC). The first session of the INC was in Bombay in 1885. Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose were important leaders in these early efforts.
- There is a theory that Hume formed the Congress with the idea that it would prove to be a ‘safety valve’ for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians. The extremist leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai believed in the ‘safety valve’ theory.
- Marxist historian’s ‘conspiracy theory’: For example, R.P. Dutt opined that the Indian National Congress was born out of a conspiracy to abort a popular uprising in India and the bourgeois leaders were a party to it.
- The early Congress leaders used Hume as a ‘lightning conductor’, i.e., as a catalyst to bring together the nationalistic forces even if under the guise of a ‘safety valve’.
Foundational theories of INC and prominent believers:
- Safety Valve Theory —Lala Lajpat Rai
- Conspiracy Theory—R.P. Dutt
- Lightning conductor Theory—G.K. Gokhale. Hence, only one pair correctly matched.
Question 11:
Consider the following statement regarding Indian National Congress (INC)?
- At the Benaras session in 1905, Gokhale presided over the session and included all forms of association in boycott program.
- Calcutta session of 1906 decided goal of INC as self-government under presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
- The Surat split happened under the leadership of moderates and dropped the goal of self-government, for a time being.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- In December 1905, at the Benaras session of the Indian National Congress (INC) presided over by Gokhale, the Moderate.
- The Extremists wanted to extend the Boycott and Swadeshi Movement to regions outside Bengal and also to include all forms of associations (such as government service, law courts, legislative councils, etc.) within the boycott program and thus start a nationwide mass movement. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Moderates, on the other hand, were not in favour of extending the movement beyond Bengal and were totally opposed to boycott of councils and similar associations.
- At the Calcutta session of the Congress in December 1906: Here, the Extremists wanted either Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the president, while the Moderates proposed the name of Dadabhai Naoroji.
- Dadabhai Naoroji was elected as the president and the goal of the Indian National Congress was defined as ‘swarajya or self-government’ like the United Kingdom or the colonies of Australia and Canada. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Also, a resolution supporting the programme of swadeshi, boycott, and national education was passed.
- The 1907 session: The Moderates wanted the session at Surat and wanted Rasbihari Ghosh as the president and sought to drop the resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, and national education.
- The split became inevitable, and the Congress was now dominated by the Moderates who lost no time in reiterating Congress’ commitment to the goal of self-government within the British Empire and to the use of constitutional methods only to achieve this goal. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Question 12:
Consider the following events:
- August Declaration
- Komagata Maru incident
- Wars in the Balkans
- Annulment of partition of Bengal
Which of the following is correct as per chronological order?
4, 2, 1 3
4, 3 2, 1
1, 2, 3, 4
3, 1, 4, 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- There were many reasons for Change in the Muslim League’s Attitude. The Calcutta session of the Muslim League (1912) had committed the League to “working with other groups for a system of self- government suited to India, provided it did not come in conflict with its basic objective of protection of interests of the Indian Muslims”:
- Annulment of partition of Bengal in 1911 had annoyed those sections of the Muslims who had supported the partition.
- Britain’s refusal to help Turkey (ruled by the Khalifa who claimed religio-political leadership of all Muslims) in its wars in the Balkans (1912–13) and with Italy (during 1911) had angered the Muslims.
- Montagu’s Statement of August 1917 or August Declaration of 1917: In 1917, the British government announced a policy of increasing Indian participation in government and gradually moving towards self-governance. This meant that Indian nationalists' demand for self-government was no longer considered seditious.
- The Komagata Maru incident – 1914: Komagata Maru was the name of a ship which was carrying 370 passengers, mainly Sikh and Punjabi Muslim would-be immigrants, from Singapore to Vancouver. They were turned back by Canadian authorities after two months of privation and uncertainty.
- It was generally believed that the Canadian authorities were influenced by the British government. The ship finally anchored at Calcutta in September 1914.
- Hence, option B is correct.
Question 13:
Consider the following statements regarding Dyarchy as per Govt of India Act 1919:
- It was the rule of two i.e. executive councillors and popular ministers.
- Unlike executive councillors, Ministers were to be responsible to the legislature.
- There were two lists of Subjects called ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’.
- Unlike reserved subjects, the governor general could interfere in respect of transferred subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and Government of India Act, 1919:
- Dyarchy, i.e., rule of two—executive councillors and popular ministers—was introduced.
- The governor was to be the executive head in the province. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.
- The ministers were to be responsible to the legislature and had to resign if a no-confidence motion was passed against them by the legislature, while the executive councillors were not to be responsible to the legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- In case of failure of constitutional machinery in the province the governor could take over the administration of transferred subjects also.
- The secretary of state for India and the governor general could interfere in respect of reserved subjects while in respect of the transferred subjects, the scope for their interference was restricted. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Question 14:
Consider the following pairs:
|
Conspiracy Case |
Secret society / Revolutionary Group |
1. |
Alipore conspiracy case |
Gadar Party |
2. |
Nasik conspiracy case |
Abhinav Bharat |
3. |
Lahore conspiracy case |
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
None of the pairs
Only one pair
Only two pairs
All three pairs
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Alipore Conspiracy case: In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage supposed to be carrying a particularly sadistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. Kingsford was not in the carriage. Unfortunately, two British ladies, instead, got killed. Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead, while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged. They were members of Anushilan Samiti. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.
- Nasik Conspiracy Case: Abhinav Bharat Society was launched in 1904 by V D Savarkar. One member of this organization Anant Lakshaman Karkare shot dead the district magistrate of Nasik. On 21st of December, 1909 , A M T Jackson the magistrate at Nasik was enjoying a theater where a drama was staged in his honor on the eve of his transfer. A young man of Abhinav Bharat Society named Ananat Laxman Karkare shot this indologist and “pandit” Jackson dead, in the theatre. This sensational murder is known as Nasik Conspiracy Case. 27 members of the Abhinav Bharat Society were convicted and punished. Ganesh Savarkar, brother of VD Savarkar was sent to Kala Pani. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
- Lahore conspiracy case: To take revenge for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Hindustan socialist republican association again took path of violence. Bhagat Singh and his associates plotted the assassination of James A. Scott, the Superintendent of Police. However, the revolutionaries mistakenly killed J.P. Saunders. The incident is famously known as Lahore Conspiracy case (1929). Hence, pair 3 is correct.
Question 15:
In the context of Modern Indian History which of the following is correct about ‘White washing bill’?
It was an act passed by Rippon to nullify the provisions of Vernacular press act,1881.
It was an Indemnity act passed for protection of officers involved in Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
It was an act passed by the British government to provide compensation to population affected by the Bengal Famine in 1770.
It was a bill passed by the British government in response to the Indian Rebellion of 1857, which aimed to strengthen British control over India and suppress any future uprisings.
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- After the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, the Government of India announced the formation of the Disorders Inquiry Committee, which came to be more widely and variously known as the Hunter Committee/ Commission.
- There were three Indians among the members, namely, Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad, Vice-Chancellor of Bombay University, and advocate of the Bombay High Court; Pandit Jagat Narayan, lawyer and Member of the Legislative Council of the United Provinces; and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan Ahmad Khan, lawyer from Gwalior State.
- Before the Hunter Committee began its proceedings, the government had passed an Indemnity Act for the protection of its officers. The “white washing bill”, as the Indemnity Act was called, was severely criticized by Motilal Nehru and others. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 16:
Consider the following statements about ‘Swarajists’ and ‘No changers’:
- ‘Swarajists’ were the part of that section of congress which opposed entry into legislative council and advocated continuing the resistance for the goal of swaraj.
- ‘No changers’ among congress advocated for council entry to make council an arena for political struggle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- After Gandhi’s arrest (March 1922), there was disintegration, disorganisation, and demoralisation among nationalist ranks. A debate started among Congressmen on what to do during the transition period, i.e., the passive phase of the movement.
- Those advocating entry into legislative councils came to be known as the ‘Swarajists’, while the ‘No-Changers’ opposed council entry, advocated concentration on constructive work, and continuation of boycott and non-cooperation, and quiet preparation for resumption of the suspended civil disobedience programme. Hence, statement 1 & 2 are not correct.
Question 17:
Recently, RBI launched India's first pilot project of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), consider the following statements regarding CBDC.
- CBDCs are a digital form of paper currency and like cryptocurrencies, they work on a decentralised network.
- It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.
- CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by blockchain.
- Bahamas is the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC named Sand Dollar.
Whic h of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- CBDCs are a digital form of a paper currency and unlike cryptocurrencies that operate in a regulatory vacuum, these are legal tenders issued and backed by a central bank. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by blockchain. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Bahamas has been the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC — Sand Dollar. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Question 18:
“Tribal Development Report 2022” is released by which of the following?
Ministry of Tribal Affairs
NITI Aayog
Ministry of Home Affairs
Bharat Rural Livelihood Foundation (BRLF)
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Recently, the Tribal Development Report 2022 was launched by the Bharat Rural Livelihood Foundation (BRLF), which claims to be the first of its kind since 1947.
- The BRLF was set up by the Union Cabinet in 2013 as an independent society under the Union Ministry of Rural Development to scale up civil society action in partnership with central and state governments. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 19:
Which one of the following best describes Gaslighting?
It is an Indian government initiative to procure cheap gas from Russia.
It is a policy adopted by UNFCC to promote green energy.
It is a phenomenon of psychological manipulation of a person.
It is referred to taking up a second job apart from one's full-time job.
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Merriam-Webster dictionary defines gaslighting as “psychological manipulation of a person usually over an extended period of time, that causes the victim to question the validity of their own thoughts, perception of reality, or memories and typically leads to confusion, loss of confidence and self-esteem, uncertainty of one’s emotional or mental stability, and a dependency on the perpetrator.”
- Gaslighting involves an imbalance of power between the abuser and the person they’re gaslighting. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 20:
Consider the following statements:
- The cryptographic keys used to encrypt and decrypt messages are stored on the endpoints.
- Some E2EE implementations allow the encrypted data to be encrypted and re-encrypted at certain points during transmission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
End-to-End Encryption (E2EE):
- About:
- End-to-end encryption is a communication process that encrypts data being shared between two devices.
- It prevents third parties like cloud service providers, internet service providers (ISPs) and cybercriminals from accessing data while it is being transferred.
- The cryptographic keys used to encrypt and decrypt the messages are stored on the endpoints. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Advantages:
- Security in Transit:
- End-to-end encryption uses public key cryptography, which stores private keys on the endpoint devices. Messages can only be decrypted using these keys, so only people with access to the endpoint devices are able to read the message.
- Safety from Third Parties:
- E2EE ensures that user data is protected from unwarranted parties including service providers, cloud storage providers, and companies that handle encrypted data.
- Disadvantages:
- Complexity in Defining the Endpoints:
- Some E2EE implementations allow the encrypted data to be encrypted and re-encrypted at certain points during transmission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Too Much Privacy:
- Government and law enforcement agencies express concern that E2EE can protect people sharing illicit content because service providers are unable to provide law enforcement with access to the content.
Question 21:
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Dare to Dream contest’:
It is a programme for promoting youth to join Indian Army.
It is a Government of India programme to provide fully funded scholarships to underprivileged students.
It is a DRDO programme to promote individual and start-ups for innovation in the area of defence and aerospace.
It is a programme of NASA to select an individual to be a part of its Artemis mission.
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- It was initiated in memory of the former President of India, Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.
- Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) provides a unique opportunity for start-ups and innovators to solve some key challenges in emerging technologies that can help boost India’s defence & aerospace capabilities.
- DRDO has been launching this Contest every year since 2019 to bring together innovators, entrepreneurs, individuals above 18 years and start-ups.
- Dare to Dream 2.0 and Dare to Dream 3.0 were launched in 2020 and 2021, respectively.
- The selection criteria for evaluation of the entries are completeness of proposal, scientific soundness, design completeness, merit, technological readiness level achieved and innovation. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 22:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Base Editing is a cancer therapy for a patient with T-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (T-ALL).
- T-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (T-ALL) is a cancer that forms in the blood-forming stem cells of the bone marrow.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Scientists in the United Kingdom (UK) have successfully tested a new form of cancer therapy, ‘Base Editing’ for the T-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (T-ALL). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- T-cell immunophenotype of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) is an uncommon aggressive leukemia that can present with leukemic / lymphomatous manifestations.
- T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) is an aggressive malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow i.e cancer that forms in the blood-forming stem cells of the bone marrow. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 23:
Consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court has 100 working days a year for its judicial functioning
- High Courts have the power to structure their calendars according to the service rules.
- The Chief Justice of India (CJI) may appoint a Division Court for the hearing of urgent cases during the vacation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
Court Vacations:
- About:
- The Supreme Court has 193 working days a year for its judicial functioning, while the High Court's function for approximately 210 days, and trial courts for 245 days. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- High Courts have the power to structure their calendars according to the service rules. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Supreme Court takes two long vacations each year, the summer and winter breaks, but is technically not fully closed during these periods.
- Legal Provisions:
- Under Rule 6 of Order II of The Supreme Court rules, 2013, the CJI has nominated the Division Benches for hearing of urgent miscellaneous matters and regular hearing matters during the summer vacation for the period.
- The rule reads that CJI may appoint one or more Judges to hear during summer vacation or winter holidays all matters of an urgent nature which under these rules may be heard by a Judge sitting singly.
- And, whenever necessary, he may likewise appoint a Division Court for the hearing of urgent cases during the vacation which require to be heard by a Bench of Judges. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 24:
The term Dokra, sometimes mentioned in the news. Which of the following correctly defines the term?
Ancient water conservation method of Tamil Nadu
Ransomware software
Terror affected region of South Sudan
A form of ancient bell Metalcraft
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Dokra Metalcraft:
- In 2018, Dokra craft from West Bengal was presented with the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. West Bengal's Lalbazaar is an art hub and becoming a center for dokra, a popular metalcraft. Hence, option D is correct.
- It is a form of ancient bell metal craft practiced by the Ojha metalsmiths living in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal and Telangana.
- Dhokra or Dokra, is also known as bell metal craft.
- The name ‘Dhokra’ comes from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of West Bengal.
- Their technique of lost wax casting is named after their tribe, hence Dhokra metal casting.
- The Dokra artifacts are made in brass and are unique in that the pieces do not have any joints. The method is combining metallurgical skills with wax techniques employing the lost wax technique, a unique form where mould is used only once and broken,
- Q making this art the only one-of-its-kind in the world.

Question 25:
Consider the following statements regarding “Cervavac”:
- It is India’s first indigenously developed quadrivalent human papillomavirus (qHPV) vaccine.
- It is based on Virus-Like Particles similar to the Hepatitis B vaccination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- India is expected to roll out the indigenously developed CERVAVAC vaccine for the prevention of cervical cancer among girls aged 9-14 years through their schools by mid-2023.
- About Vaccine:
- It is India’s first indigenously developed quadrivalent human papillomavirus (qHPV) vaccine that is said to be effective against four strains of the virus - Type 6, Type 11, Type 16 and Type 18. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- A quadrivalent vaccine is a vaccine that works by stimulating an immune response against four different antigens, such as four different viruses or other microorganisms.
- CERVAVAC is based on VLP (Virus-Like Particles), similar to the Hepatitis B vaccination. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- About Cervical Cancer:
- Cervical cancer develops in a woman's cervix. It is the 4th most common type of cancer among women, globally and 2nd most common among women in India.
- Almost all cervical cancer cases (99%) are linked to infection with high-risk HPV, an extremely common virus transmitted through sexual contact.
- Effective primary (HPV vaccination) and secondary prevention approaches (screening for and treating precancerous lesions) will prevent most cervical cancer cases.
Question 26:
Consider the following pairs regarding joint Military Exercises of India with other countries
- Garuda Shakti - Indonesia
- Kurukshetra - Singapore
- Hand-in-Hand - China
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- In the domain of international relations, military diplomacy has, in recent years, emerged as a major tool to further diplomatic interests of nations.
- Participation in international level military exercises is an indication of the highest level of trust and confidence between the member nations.
- On the operational side, military exercises enable militaries to understand each other’s drills and procedures, overcome language barriers, and facilitate familiarization with equipment capabilities.
- Besides goodwill, it is a tool for projection of a nation’s soft power – culture, language, customs, beliefs, food habits and lifestyle.
- Joint Military Exercises of India with Other Countries
- Garuda Shakti - Indonesia
- Hand-in-Hand - China
- Kurukshetra - Singapore
- Mitra Shakti - Sri Lanka
- Nomadic Elephant - Mongolia
- Yudh Abhyas - USA
- Hence, option D is correct.
Question 27:
Arrange the following disputed territories between India and Nepal in North to South manner:
- Lipulekh
- Kalapani
- Limpiyadhura
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3, 1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2, 1 and 3
3, 2 and 1
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
Border Dispute Between India and Nepal:
- Currently, India and Nepal have border disputes over Kalapani - Limpiyadhura - Lipulekh trijunction between India-Nepal and China and Susta area (West Champaran district, Bihar).
- Kalapani Region:
- Kalapani is a valley that is administered by India as a part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand. It is situated on the Kailash Mansarovar route.
- Kalapani is advantageously located at a height of over 20,000 ft and serves as an observation post for that area.
- The Kali River in the Kalapani region demarcates the border between India and Nepal.
- The Treaty of Sugauli signed by the Kingdom of Nepal and British India (after Anglo-Nepalese War) in 1816 located the Kali River as Nepal's western boundary with India.
- The discrepancy in locating the source of the Kali River led to boundary disputes between India and Nepal, with each country producing maps supporting their own claims.

- Hence, option A is correct.
Question 28:
Which one of the following statements correctly explains Yotta D1?
It is the biggest communication satellite launched by the ISRO.
It is a new supercomputer developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
It is the name of the new technology being used in strengthening 5G internet.
It is north India’s first hyperscale data centre situated in the Uttar Pradesh.
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Yotta D1, built at a cost of Rs 5,000 crore, is the country’s biggest and UP’s first data centre.
- It is north India’s first hyperscale data centre.
- The data centre will increase data storage capacity of the country, which until now stood at 2% only despite the fact that 20% of the world’s data is consumed by Indians.
- Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 29:
Consider the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Regime:
- The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the Government bi-annually.
- Fertilizers with secondary and micronutrients such as molybdenum (Mo) and zinc are not given subsidy under this regime.
- It intends to increase the consumption of P&K fertilizers to achieve optimum balance of NPK fertilization where N:P:K is 4:1:2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Regime:
- Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers.
- Also, the fertilizers which are fortified with secondary and micronutrients such as molybdenum (Mo) and zinc are given additional subsidy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the Government on an annual basis for each nutrient on a per kg basis – which are determined taking into account the international and domestic prices of P&K fertilizers, exchange rate, inventory level in the country etc. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- NBS policy intends to increase the consumption of P&K fertilizers so that optimum balance (N:P:K= 4:2:1) of NPK fertilization is achieved. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- This would improve soil health and as a result the yield from the crops would increase, resulting in enhanced income to the farmers.
- Also, as the government expects rational use of fertilizers, this would also ease off the burden of fertilizer subsidy.
- It is being implemented since April 2010 by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
Question 30:
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Statue of Prosperity’:
- It is a statue of a chieftain under the Vijayanagar Empire.
- Ram Vanji Sutar has designed the statue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Statue of Prosperity is the statue of Nadaprabhu Kempegowda. He was the chieftain under the Vijayanagara Empire of the 16th century. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- As per the ‘World Book of Records’, it is the first and the tallest bronze statue of a founder of a city.
- Renowned sculptor and Padma Bhushan awardee Ram Vanji Sutar has designed the statue. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Sutar had built the ‘Statue of Unity’ in Gujarat and the statue of Mahatma Gandhi in Bengaluru’s ‘Vidhana Soudha’.
Question 31:
Consider the following statements regarding Friendshoring.
- It is a strategy where a country procures goods and promote trade only if the other country shares common values of the procuring country.
- It could further enable the globalisation process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Friendshoring is a strategy where a country sources the raw materials, components and even manufactured goods from countries that share its values. The dependence on the countries considered a "threat" to the stability of the supply chains is slowly reduced.
- It is also called "allyshoring". Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Friendshoring may push the world towards a more isolated place for trade and reverse the gains of globalization. It is a part of the "deglobalisation" process. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 32:
With reference to ‘Old Pension Scheme’, consider the following statements:
- Under this scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary.
- All citizens of India (including NRIs) aged between 18 - 70 years were allowed to join the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- The scheme assures life-long income, post-retirement.
- Under the old scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary. They also get the benefit of the revision of Dearness Relief (DR), twice a year. The payout is fixed and there was no deduction from the salary. Moreover, under the OPS, there was the provision of the General Provident Fund (GPF). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The All-Citizens Model of the New Pension Scheme (NPS) allows all citizens of India (including NRIs) aged between 18 - 70 years to join NPS.
- It is a participatory scheme, where employees contribute to their pension corpus from their salaries, with matching contributions from the government. The funds are then invested in earmarked investment schemes through Pension Fund Managers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 33:
Regarding the Green Voyage 2050 Project, consider the following statements:
- It is a partnership project between the Greenland and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) to promote the shipping industry.
- It aims to utilize potential shipping lanes and increase connectivity in the arctic region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The Green Voyage 2050 Project is a partnership project between the Government of Norway and the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) launched in May 2019 aiming to transform the shipping industry towards a lower carbon future. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The global partnership is supporting developing countries, including Small Islands Developing States (SIDS) and Least Developed Countries (LDCs), in meeting their commitment towards relevant climate change and energy efficiency goals, for international shipping, through supporting the Initial IMO Green House Gas (GHG) Strategy.
- One of the important aims of Green Voyage2050 is to spur global efforts to demonstrate and test technology solutions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Question 34:
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘MAARG Portal’:
- It is the National Mentorship Platform by Start-up India to help and guide new start-ups grow and flourish.
- This portal is being operationalized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
MAARG Portal Objectives:
- To provide sector focused guidance, handholding, and support to start-ups throughout their lifecycle. It intended to establish a formalized and structured platform that facilitates intelligent matchmaking between the mentors and their respective mentees to facilitate efficient and expert mentorship for start-ups and build an outcome-oriented mechanism that allows timely tracking of the mentor-mentee engagements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- MAARG portal is – Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth.
- MAARG Portal is being operationalized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 35:
Consider the following pairs:
|
India’s Joint Maritime Exercises |
Partner Countries |
1. |
Naseem Al Bahr |
Oman |
2. |
VARUNA |
France |
3. |
Samudra Shakti |
Sri Lanka |
4. |
CORPAT |
Thailand |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1,2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Naseem Al Bahr is a bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy (IN) and the Royal Navy of Oman (RNO). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Indian and French Navies have been conducting bilateral maritime exercises since 1993. Since 2001, these exercises have been called ‘VARUNA’. This is an annual event. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- In pursuance of India’s Act East Policy, Exercise ‘Samudra Shakti’ was conceived in 2018 as a bilateral Indo-Indonesian exercise. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- India and Thailand have been carrying out CORPAT along their International Maritime Boundary Line twice a year since 2005. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Question 36:
Which of the following best describes the term ‘Bluebugging’?
Blooming of blue-green algae in seas
Hacking via Bluetooth connections
Usage of antimicrobial resistant superbugs as biological weapons
None of the above
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Bluebugging is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection.
- A hacker can gain unauthorized access to these apps and devices and control them as per their wish through bluebugging.
- Any Bluetooth-enabled device including True Wireless Stereo (TWS) devices or earbuds are susceptible to bluebugging.
- Once a device or phone is bluebugged, a hacker can listen to the calls, read and send messages and steal and modify contacts.
- Even the most secure smartphones like iPhones are vulnerable to such attacks.
- Hence, option B is correct.
Question 37:
Fujiwhara Effect recently in the news is related to which of the following?
Tropical Storms
Earthquake
Heatwaves
Draught
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
Tropical Storms
- The Fujiwhara Effect is any interaction between tropical storms formed around the same time in the same ocean region with their centres or eyes at a distance of less than 1,400 km, with intensity that could vary between a depression (wind speed under 63 km per hour) and a super typhoon (wind speed over 209 km per hour).
- The interaction could lead to changes in the track and intensity of either or both storm systems.
- In rare cases, the two systems could merge, especially when they are of similar size and intensity, to form a bigger storm.
- Hence, option A is correct.
Question 38:
Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
- Lord Cornwallis
- Alexander Read
- Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Land settlements introduced in India by the English East India Company are as follows:
- Permanent Settlement (1793):
- It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis. Hence, 1 is not correct.
- The Rajas and Taluqdars were recognised as zamindars and asked to collect rent from the peasants and pay revenue to the Company.
- The amount to be paid was fixed permanently.
- Mahalwari Settlement (1822):
- It was devised by Holt Mackenzie in the Northwestern Provinces (region of Agra, Oudh and Punjab).
- Collectors went from village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the fields, and recording the customs and rights of different groups.
- The estimated revenue of each plot within a village was added up to calculate the revenue that each village (Mahal) had to pay.
- This demand was to be revised periodically.
- The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village headman, rather than the zamindar.
- Ryotwari System (1820): It was started in South India by Captain Alexander Read and Thomas Munro. Hence, 2 and 3 are correct.
- This system allowed the government to deal directly with the peasant (ryot) for revenue collection, and gave the peasant freedom to give up or acquire new land for cultivation.
Question 39:
Consider the following:
- Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
- Use of mobile cannons in warfare
- Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
None
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- System of land revenue, under which the land was assessed by a systematic survey and measurement of the entire cultivable land was initiated by Sher Shah Suri. During Akbar’s rule, this system was more elaborated and implemented in detail across the Mughal Empire. Akbar followed the system of standardization of measurement of land; ascertaining the produce per bigha of land; and fixation of the State’s share in that produce. Hence, 1 is not correct.
- In the First Battle of Panipat (1526), Babur used cannons against Ibrahim Lodhi’s army. It was further used by Babur himself in the Battle of Khanwa in 1528 against the army of Rana Sanga. Hence, 2 is not correct.
- Chillies are believed to be of Mexican origin and dates back to 3500 BC. It was introduced to the rest of the world by Christopher Columbus who discovered America in 1493. It became popular in Portugal. In 1498, Vasco-da-Gama reached Indian shores and introduced chillies in India. Tobacco is a plant that grows natively in North and South America. Hence, 3 is not correct.
Question 40:
Consider the following pairs:
- Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association
- Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
- Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Radhakanta Deb (1784-1867) was a scholar and a leader of the Calcutta conservative Hindu society. Between 1822 and 1856, he published Shabda Kalpadruma, a dictionary of Sanskrit language in eight volumes. On the establishment of the British Indian Association in 1851, Radhakanta Deb was elected its president and remained on the post till his death. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anand Charlu on 16th May 1884. The objective of the organization was to integrate various regional organizations working for the freedom struggle. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- Sir Surendranath Banerjee was born on 10th November 1848 in Calcutta. He founded the Indian Association on 26th July 1876 which was intended to be the centre of an all – India political movement. The first session of the National Conference was held in Calcutta on December 28th-30th 1883, and was attended by more than a hundred delegates from different parts of India. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Question 41:
What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Sir William Wedderburn was a civil servant in India from 1860 to 1880s. During his service in India, Wedderburn focussed on problems of famine, poverty of the Indian peasantry, agricultural indebtedness and the question of reviving the ancient village system. His concern with these problems brought him in touch with the Indian National Congress.
- He presided over the fourth Congress session held in Bombay in 1889.
- He entered Parliament in 1893 as a Liberal Party member and sought to voice India’s grievances in the House. He formed the Indian Parliamentary Committee with which he was associated as Chairman from 1893 to 1900.
- In 1895, Wedderburn represented India on the Welby Commission (i.e., the Royal Commission) on Indian Expenditure. He also began participating in the activities of the Indian Famine Union set up in June 1901, for investigation into famines and proposing preventive measures. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Question 42:
Who among the following used the phrase ‘UnBritish’ to criticize the English colonial control of India?
Anandmohan Bose
Badruddin Tyabji
Dadabhai Naoroji
Pherozeshah Mehta
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Dadabhai Naoroji used the term ‘Un-British’ to criticise the British rule in India. His book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ (1901) brought attention to the draining of India‘s wealth to Britain. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- One of the reasons that the Drain Theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the national income of India, and the effect that colonisation had on the country. His economic critique provided insights into the nature of British colonial policies and how the native wealth was being drained to England.
Question 43:
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person : Position held
- Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
- K. C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly
- P. C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Tej Bahadur Sapru was a member of the United Provinces Legislative Council (1913–16) and the Imperial Legislative Council (1916–20), a law member of the Viceroy’s Council (1920–23), and a delegate to the three Round Table Conference sessions in London (1930–32). He was also a prominent member of the Liberal Party of India and the President of All India Liberal Federation. He supported the World War II effort of the British Empire without insisting on an early grant of independence in return. He was conferred Knighthood in 1922. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Kshitish Chandra Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly and was appointed as the Chairman of First Finance Commission in 1951. Neogy as a member of the First Cabinet of Independent India under Jawaharlal Nehru served as the Minister of Relief and Rehabilitation and later as Minister for Commerce. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
- Puran Chand Joshi was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of India for a period from 1935 to 1947. In 1929, at the age of 22, the British Government arrested him as one of the suspects in the Meerut Conspiracy Case. After his release in 1933, Joshi worked towards bringing a number of groups under the banner of the Communist Party of India (CPI). Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Question 44:
In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
All India Home Rule League
Hindu Mahasabha
South Indian Liberal Federation
The Servants of India Society
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- All India Home Rule League:
- The Home Rule League Movement was the Indian response to the First World War in a less charged, but a more effective way than the response of Indians living abroad which took the form of the Ghadar Movement.
- Two Indian Home Rule Leagues were organised on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend.
- Tilak set up his Home Rule League in April 1916 and it was restricted to Maharashtra (excluding the Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar. Annie Besant set up her league in September 1916 in Madras and covered the rest of India (including Bombay city).
- Later, Mahatma Gandhi renamed the All India Home Rule League as “Swarajya Sabha” which later merged with the Congress. Hence, option (a) is correct.
- Hindu Mahasabha:
- Previously known as the Sarvadeshak Hindu Sabha, the Hindu Mahasabha was established in 1915 with the objective to create an organisation which could protect the rights of the Hindu community.
- The prominent names associated with the Mahasabha are Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, V.D. Savarkar, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee and K.B. Hedgewar (who later left the organisation to form the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh).
- South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF): On November 20, 1916, around 30 prominent nonBrahmin leaders, including Dr. Natesa Mudaliyar, Sir PT Theyagaraya Chetty, TM Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal came together to form SILF which was popularly called as Justice Party after its ‘Justice’ newspaper.
- It is known for its support to the Anti-Hindi imposition agitation of 1937–40 and Periyar E. V. Ramasamy’s Self-Respect Movement.
- In the 16th annual confederation (1944) of the Justice Party held in Salem (Tamil Nadu), its name was changed to Dravidar Kazhagam (DK) under the leadership of Periyar.
- Servants of India Society:
- It was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 to unite and train Indians in welfare work with an objective to overthrow the British rule in India.
- It was the first secular organization in the country which devoted itself to the cause of underprivileged, rural and tribal people, emergency relief work, education, sanitation, and other social causes. The organization has its headquarters in Pune and branches in states like Uttar Pradesh, Odisha and Uttarakhand. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Question 45:
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
- Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
- Quit India Movement launched
- Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
1 – 2– 3
2 – 1 – 3
3 – 2 – 1
3 – 1 – 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Royal Indian Navy Mutiny: It broke out in February 1946, when a section of non-commissioned officers and sailors known as Ratings revolted against British officers. It started as a strike demanding better food and accommodation. The mutiny came to an end with the intervention of Sardar Vallabhhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah. The mutineers surrendered on 23rd February 1946.
- Quit India Movement: Mahatma Gandhi decided to initiate a new phase of the movement called Quit India Movement against the British in August 1942. He gave the slogan, ‘do or die’ to the masses and asked them to protest non-violently. Gandhi and other leaders were jailed at once, but the movement took its own course.
- Second Round Table Conference: A Second Round Table Conference was held in London during September 1931 to December 1931. Here, Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress (INC). It was the only Round Table Conference in which INC participated. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Question 46:
The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War
India should be granted complete independence
India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
India should be given Dominion status
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Cripps Mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent by the British Government in 1942 to secure the cooperation of India in the Second World War.
- The proposal of the Cripps Mission was that India would be given a Dominion status associated with the United Kingdom. Further, it also suggested for setting up of a Constituent Assembly for framing the Constitution for Dominion of India post-World War II. Hence, option (d) is correct.
- Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru were the official negotiators of the Indian National Congress. The talks at the Cripps proposal failed ultimately leading to the launch of the Quit India Movement.
Question 47:
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- In 1932, after the Second Round Table Conference, Ramsay MacDonald announced ‘The Communal Award’, according to which Depressed Class was provided with separate electorate. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Mahatma Gandhi considered this move as an attack on Indian nationalism. Therefore, Mahatma Gandhi went on a hunger strike and objected to the provision of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes.
Question 48:
Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to the item using the code given below:
Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War. (2008)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- On 1st September 1939, Germany attacked Poland, which triggered the Second World War; British thereon declared war against Germany and India was also dragged into the war without consulting Indian opinion. Indian National Congress, objected to this decision of the Viceroy which was taken without consulting Indians. Hence, Reason (R) is correct.
- On 17th October, Viceroy Linlithgow in his statement expressed British position, which was not accommodating Indian opinion and kept British war aims ambiguous.
- Subsequently, on 23rd October 1939, the Congress Provincial Ministries tendered their resignation. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.
- Both Viceroy Linlithgow and Muhammad Ali Jinnah were pleased with the resignations.
- On 2nd December 1939, Jinnah put out an appeal, calling for Indian Muslims to celebrate 22nd December 1939 as a “Day of Deliverance“ from Congress. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Question 49:
Which among the following events happened earliest?
Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- ‘Neeldarpan’ is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essentially related to the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields as a protest against exploitative farming practices under the British Raj.
- The Arya Samaj Movement, revivalist in form, though not in content, was the result of a reaction to Western influences. It was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati or Mulshankar. The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by him in Bombay in 1875 and later the headquarters of the Arya Samaj was established in Lahore.
- ‘Anandmath’ is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. It is set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century. The national song of India, ‘Vande Mataram’ was first published in this novel.
- Satyendra Nath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify ICS exam in the year of 1863. The ICS Exam was held in England at that time. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Question 50:
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
Impose censorship on national press.
Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The British government appointed the Indian States Committee, popularly known as the Butler Committee in 1927. The Chairman of the Committee was Sir Harcourt Butler.
- The Committee was tasked to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes of the Princely States and to suggest ways and means for more satisfactory adjustments of the existing relations. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Question 51:
The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
Gopal Baba Walangkar
Jyotiba Phule
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Gopal Baba Walangkar (1840-1900), also known as Gopal Krishna, was born into a family of the untouchable Mahar caste in Raigad district, Maharashtra.
- He was the first to fight for the rights of the Mahars in Maharashtra.
- He retired from military service in 1886 and mobilized people and made them conscious about their human rights.
- In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Question 52:
Who among the following Gandhian followers was a teacher by profession?
A. N. Sinha
Braj Kishore Prasad
J. B. Kriplani
Rajendra Prasad
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- A. N. Sinha (Anurag Narayan Sinha), one of the great political leaders from Bihar, was professionally a lawyer and a member of the Constituent Assembly. He was also given the title Bihar Vibhuti.
- Braj Kishore Prasad was a lawyer and social reformer from Bihar. He was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi and got involved full-time in the freedom struggle and gave up his legal practice.
- J. B. Kriplani, also known as Acharya Kriplani, was a noted Gandhian socialist, educationist and an independence activist. He was one of the members of the Constituent Assembly and served in the Interim Government of India (1946-1947). Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Rajendra Prasad was an Indian politician, lawyer, and journalist who was the first President of the Republic of India. He was also a comrade of Mahatma Gandhi during the Non-Cooperation Movement for independence.
Question 53:
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
The participation of workers in the management of industries.
Arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
An intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
A system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Provisions of Trade Disputes Act (TDA), 1929.
- It made the appointment of Courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes compulsory.
- It made the strikes in public utility services like posts, railways, water and electricity illegal, unless each individual worker planning to go on strike gave an advance notice of one month to the administration.
- It also forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes. Hence, statement D is correct.
Question 54:
Consider the following events:
- Satyagraha against Registration Certificates
- Campaign against Restrictions on Indian Migration
- Foundation of Tolstoy Farm
- Foundation of Phoenix Farm
Which of the following code given below represent correct chronology of the events by Gandhiji in South Africa?
1, 2, 3, 4
4, 3, 2, 1
4, 1, 3, 2
3, 4, 1, 3
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Phase of Passive Resistance or Satyagraha (1906–1914) The second phase, which began in 1906, was characterized by the use of the method of passive resistance or civil disobedience, which Gandhi named satyagraha.
- In 1910, Gandhi founded the Tolstoy Farm, named after Russian writer Tolstoy whom Gandhi admired. It was meant to house families of satyagrahis and help them sustain themselves while they focused on their struggle. It also served as an educational experiment.
- The Tolstoy Farm was the second of its kind established by Gandhi. He had set up the Phoenix Farm in 1904 in Natal, inspired by a reading of John Ruskin’s unto This Last, a critique of capitalism, and a work that extolled the virtues of the simple life of love, labour, and the dignity of human beings.
- Satyagraha against Registration Certificates (1906): A new legislation in South Africa made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all times certificates of registration with their fingerprints. The Indians under Gandhi’s leadership decided not to submit to this discriminatory measure. Gandhi formed the Passive Resistance Association (1906) to conduct the campaign of defying the law and suffering all the penalties resulting from such a defiance.
- Campaign against Restrictions on Indian Migration (1913): The earlier campaign was widened to include protest against a new legislation imposing restrictions on Indian migration. The Indians defied this law by crossing over from one province to another and by refusing to produce licences. Many of these Indians were jailed. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 55:
Consider the following statements:
- The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act provided that even possession of seditious newspapers would be adequate evidence of guilt and suspicion of "treason."
- It sought to suspend the law of habeas corpus and to permanently replace provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act.
- The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the demand for reforming the management of Sikh shrines due to reasons related to the event.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- The Rowlatt Act: It was what was officially called the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, but popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. It was based on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Commission, to investigate the ‘seditious conspiracy’ of the Indian people.
- The committee had recommended that activists should be deported or imprisoned without trial for two years, and that even possession of seditious newspapers would be adequate evidence of guilt. All the elected Indian members—who included Muhammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya, and Mazhar Ul Haq—resigned in protest. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It allowed arrest of Indians without warrant on the mere suspicion of ‘treason’. Such suspects could be tried in secrecy without recourse to legal help. The law of habeas corpus, the basis of civil liberty, was sought to be suspended. The object of the government was to replace the repressive provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act (1915) by a permanent law. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919): Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer enforced martial law in Amritsar. On Baisakhi day, a large crowd, mostly from neighboring villages and unaware of the city's prohibitory orders, gathered in Jallianwala Bagh. Dyer and his troops arrived and surrounded the unarmed crowd, blocking the only exit point. Without issuing a warning or instruction to disperse, the troops opened fire as the gathering tried to flee, including men, women, and children.
- Dyer was not universally condemned. The clergy of the Golden Temple, led by Arur Singh, honoured Dyer by declaring him a Sikh. The honouring of Dyer by the priests of Sri Darbar Sahib, Amritsar, was one of the reasons behind the intensification of the demand for reforming the management of Sikh shrines already being voiced by societies such as the Khalsa Diwan Majha and Central Majha Khalsa Diwan. This resulted in the launch of what came to be known as the Gurudwara Reform movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 56:
Consider the following statements:
- Post khilafat issue, Swarajist Party was formed by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.
- Independence of India League was formed by Bose and J.L. Nehru by rejecting Nehru Report.
- Forward Block was an independent political party formed by Bose to launch an all-India protest against the willingness of Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Genesis of Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party: The differences over the question of council entry between the Swarajist and Socialist schools of thought resulted in the defeat of the Swarajists’ proposal of ‘ending or mending’ the councils at the Gaya session of the Congress (December 1922).
- C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru resigned from the presidentship and secretaryship respectively of the Congress and announced the formation of Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party or simply Swarajist Party, with C.R. Das as the president and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Nehru Report Found Unsatisfactory: The Nehru Report upset many groups including the Muslim League, Hindu Mahasabha, and Sikh communalists, as well as young Congress leaders like J. L. Nehru and Bose. They disliked the idea of dominion status and felt it was a step back, and the All-Parties Conference reinforced their opposition. Nehru and Subhas Bose rejected the Congress’ modified goal and jointly set up the Independence for India League. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- In May 1939, Bose and his followers formed the Forward Bloc (at Makur, Unnao) as a new party within the Congress (not an Independent Political Party). But when he gave a call for an all-India protest on July 9 against an AICC resolution, the Congress Working Committee took disciplinary action against Bose: in August 1939, he was removed from the post of president of the Bengal Provincial Congress Committee besides being debarred from holding any elective office in the Congress for a period of three years. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Question 57:
Consider the following Pairs:
1. |
Delhi Proposals |
National leaders put forward certain conditions for attending the Round Table Conference. |
2. |
Delhi Pact |
Placed the Congress on an equal footing with the British government. |
3. |
Delhi Manifesto |
The Muslim League demanded that their proposals be incorporated into the draft constitution. |
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Only one Pair
Two Pairs only
All the Pairs are correctly matched
None of the Above
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Delhi Proposals of Muslim League: Earlier, in December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders had met at Delhi at the Muslim League session and evolved four proposals for their demands to be incorporated into the draft constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by the Madras session of the Congress (December 1927), came to be known as the ‘Delhi Proposals’. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
- Gandhi-Irwin Pact: On January 25, 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. The CWC authorized Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy. As a result of these discussions, a pact was signed between the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the Indian people, in Delhi on March 5, 1931. This Delhi Pact, also known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
- Delhi Manifesto: On November 2, 1929, a conference of prominent national leaders issued a ‘Delhi Manifesto’, which put forward certain conditions for attending the Round Table Conference. Hence, Pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Question 58:
Consider the following statements and choose Correct one in context of Deepavali Declaration:
To restore faith in the ultimate purpose of British policy and attainment of Dominion status.
Held that self-government as the long-term goal of the British rule in India.
The purpose of the round table conference was to draft a constitutional scheme for dominion status.
None of the Above.
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Deepavali Declaration’ by Lord Irwin (October 31, 1929): Before the Simon Commission report came out, the declaration by Lord Irwin was made. The purpose behind the declaration was to “restore faith in the ultimate purpose of British policy”.
- The declaration was made in the form of an official communique in the Indian Gazette on October 31, 1929. It said: “In view of the doubts which have been expressed both in Great Britain and in India regarding the interpretations to be placed on the intentions of the British government in enacting the statute of 1919, I am authorised on behalf of His Majesty’s Government to state clearly that in their judgement it is implicit in the Declaration of 1917 that the natural issue of India’s constitutional progress as they contemplated is the attainment of Dominion status.”
- However, there was no time scale. The dominion status promised by Irwin would not be available for a long time to come. There was in reality nothing new or revolutionary in the declaration. Lord Irwin also promised a Round Table Conference after the Simon Commission submitted its report. Hence, statement A is correct.
Question 59:
The term Sibirams is related to which of the following?
Center for underground activity during Quit India Movement.
Military style camps were set up to serve as the headquarters of the Salt Satyagraha.
A form of Parallel governments in Satara during Quit India Movement.
None of the Above.
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Spread of Salt Law Disobedience: Once the way was cleared by Gandhi’s ritual at Dandi, defiance of the salt laws started all over the country. Nehru’s arrest in April 1930 for defiance of the salt law evoked huge demonstrations in Madras, Calcutta, and Karachi.
- Gandhi’s arrest was followed by massive protests in Bombay, Delhi, Calcutta, and in Sholapur, where the response was the fiercest.
- Andhra Region: District salt marches were organised in east and west Godavari, Krishna, and Guntur. A number of sibirams (military style camps) were set up to serve as the headquarters of the Salt Satyagraha. The merchants contributed to Congress funds, and the dominant caste Kamma and Raju cultivators defied repressive measures. But the mass support like that in the non-cooperation movement (1921–22) was missing in the region. Hence, statement B is correct.
- Forms of Mobilisation: Mobilisation of masses was also carried out through prabhat pheries, vanar senas, manjari senas, secret patrikas, and magic lantern shows.
Question 60:
Consider the following statements:
- Badshah Khan had started the political monthly Pukhtoon and organised a volunteer brigade Khudai Khidmatgars.
- Unlike male members, women who were part of the Khudai Khidmatgar wore black garments.
- Qissa Khwani Bazaar massacre is related to the Khudai Khidmatgar.
- Badshah Khan became the first foreigner to win the Bharat Ratna.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
None of the Above
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Spread of Salt Law Disobedience:
- Peshawar: Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicised them. Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’, popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Frontier Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace prize in 1985. In 1987 he became the first foreigner to win the Bharat Ratna. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Members of the Khudai Khidmatgar were organised and the men stood out because of the bright red shirts they wore as uniforms, while the women wore black garments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Khudai Khidmatgar opposed Partition.
- The Qissa Khwani Bazaar massacre:
- Abdul Ghaffar Khan and other leaders of the Khudai Khidmatgar were arrested on April 23, 1930 by British police after he gave a speech at a gathering in the town of Utmanzai in the North-West Frontier Province.
- Protests spilled into the Qissa Khwani Bazaar in Peshawar on the day of Khan’s arrest.
- British soldiers entered the market area to disperse crowds that had refused to leave. In response, British army vehicles drove into the crowds, killing several protesters and bystanders. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 61:
Consider the following statements regarding the Round Table Conferences:
- At the First Round Table Conference, it was agreed that all departments except for defence and finance would be transferred.
- At the Second Round Table Conference, India's constitutional future was discussed and decided.
- Third Round Table Conference proposed the draft Bill for Government of India Act of 1935.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- First Round Table Conference: Nothing much was achieved at the conference. It was generally agreed that India was to develop into a federation, there were to be safeguards regarding defence and finance, while other departments were to be transferred. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Second Round Table Conference: The lack of agreement among the many delegate groups meant that no substantial results regarding India’s constitutional future would come out of the conference. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Third Round Table Conference: It was not attended by the Indian National Congress and Gandhi. It was ignored by most other Indian leaders.
- The recommendations were published in a White Paper in March 1933 and debated in the British Parliament afterwards. A Joint Select Committee was formed to analyse the recommendations and formulate a new Act for India, and that committee produced a draft Bill in February 1935, which was enforced as the Government of India Act of 1935 in July 1935. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 62:
Following the Communal Award of 1932, Poona Pact was signed. Which of the following were the signatories of the Poona Pact?
Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Mahatma Gandhi and Mr. Mathuradas Vissonji Khimji
Rajagopalachari and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
None of the Above
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- In 1932, B.R. Ambedkar negotiated the Poona Pact with Mahatma Gandhi. The background to the Poona Pact was the Communal Award of August 1932 which provided a separate electorate for depressed classes. So, Gandhiji was not a signatory of the Poona Pact, he was only a negotiator of the Pact with Dr Ambedkar.
- Madan Mohan Malaviya signed the Poona Pact, in place of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 63:
Consider the following statements regarding Simon Commission:
- It accepted the idea of federalism in the near future and suggested the creation of a Consultative Council of Greater India.
- It recommended separation of Burma from India and suggested Indianization of the Indian army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
The Simon Commission Recommendations:
- The Simon Commission published a two-volume report in May 1930. It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces which should be given autonomy.
- It accepted the idea of federalism but not in the near future. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- It suggested that a Consultative Council of Greater India should be established, which should include representatives of both the British provinces as well as princely states.
- It suggested that the North-West Frontier Province and Baluchistan should get local legislatures, and both NWFP and Baluchistan should have the right to be represented at the centre.
- It recommended that Sindh should be separated from Bombay, and Burma should be separated from India because it was not a natural part of the Indian subcontinent.
- It also suggested that the Indian army should be Indianised though British forces must be retained. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 64:
Consider the following statements:
- Delhi Chalo Movement was a war cry by the Indian National Army (INA) after formed the Provisional Government for Free India at Singapore.
- Chalo Delhi was a symbol slogan given during the launch of individual satyagraha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- Individual Satyagraha: The government had taken the adamant position that no constitutional advance could be made till the Congress came to an agreement with the Muslim leaders. Gandhi now began taking steps which would lead to a mass struggle within his broad strategic perspective.
- He decided to initiate a limited satyagraha on an individual basis by a few selected individuals in every locality. The demand of the satyagrahi would be the freedom of speech against the war through an anti-war declaration. If the government did not arrest the satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it but move into villages and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement which came to be known as the ‘Delhi Chalo Movement’. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer the satyagraha and Nehru, the second. By May 1941, 25,000 people had been convicted for individual civil disobedience.
- On October 21, 1943, Subhas Bose formed the Provisional Government for Free India at Singapore. The famous slogan- “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” was given in Malaya.
- The INA headquarters was shifted to Rangoon (in Burma) in January 1944, and the army recruits were to march from there with the war cry “Chalo Delhi!” on their lips. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Question 65:
Consider the following statements regarding Quit India Movement (QIM):
- Communists supported Quit India Movement.
- Hindu Mahasabha and youth were in forefront while participating in the movement.
- Gandhi started a fast to condemn violence by the masses in the form of Parallel governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All statements are correct.
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
Quit India Movement: Extent of Mass Participation:
- Youth, especially the students of schools and colleges, remained in the forefront.
- Workers went on strikes and faced repression.
- Peasants of all strata were at the heart of the movement. Even some zamindars participated. These peasants concentrated their offensive on symbols of authority, and there was complete absence of anti-zamindar violence.
- Muslims helped by giving shelter to underground activists. There were no communal clashes during the movement.
- The Communists did not join the movement; in the wake of Russia (where the communists were in power) being attacked by Nazi Germany, the communists began to support the British war against Germany and the ‘Imperialist War’ became the ‘People’s War’. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Muslim League opposed the movement, fearing that if the British left India at that time, the minorities would be oppressed by the Hindus.
- The Hindu Mahasabha boycotted the movement. The Princely states showed a low-key response. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Gandhi Fasts: In February 1943, Gandhi started a fast as an answer to an exhortation by the government to condemn violence; the fast was directed against the violence of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- The popular response to the news of the fast was immediate and overwhelming. Protests were organised at home and abroad through hartals, demonstrations, and strikes. Three members of the viceroy’s executive council resigned.
Question 66:
Which of the following were the similar provisions in the Rajagopalachari Formula and Desai-Liaqat Pact:
Cooperation to form provisional interim government at centre.
Reservation for minorities
Provisions for plebiscite, partition, and safeguarding defence, commerce, communications.
None of the Above.
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Rajagopalachari Formula: C. Rajagopalachari (CR) prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation in 1944. It was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the formula. The main points in the CR Plan were:
- Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.
- League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.
- After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.
- In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc.
- Desai-Liaqat Pact: Efforts continued to end the deadlock. Bhulabhai Desai, leader of the Congress Party met Liaqat Ali Khan, of the Muslim League, and both of them came up with the draft proposal for the formation of an interim government at the centre, consisting of:
- an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature. Hence, option A is correct.
- 20% reserved seats for minorities.
- No settlement could be reached between the Congress and the League on these lines, but the fact that a sort of parity between the Congress and the League was decided upon had far-reaching consequences.
Question 67:
Consider the following statement:
- Breakdown Plan was a part of Cabinet Mission.
- A constituent assembly proposed by Cabinet Mission was based on a good, democratic method.
- As per Cabinet mission, communal questions in the central legislature were to be decided by a simple majority of both communities present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Wavell’s ‘Breakdown Plan’: Wavell presented his plan to the Cabinet Mission in May 1946. It visualized a middle course between “repression” and “scuttle”. This plan envisaged the withdrawal of the British Army and officials to the Muslim provinces of North-West and North-East and handing over the rest of the country to the Congress. Though superseded by the Cabinet Mission Plan, Wavell’s plan was evidence of British recognition of the impossibility of suppressing any future Congress-led rebellion; and desire in some high official circles to make a “Northern Ireland” of Pakistan. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Cabinet Mission Plan—Main Points:
- Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan
- A constituent assembly was to be elected by provincial assemblies by proportional representation (voting in three groups—General, Muslims, Sikhs). This constituent assembly would be a 389-member body with provincial assemblies sending 292, chief commissioner’s provinces sending 4, and princely states sending 93 members.
- This was a good, democratic method not based on weightage. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Communal questions in the central legislature were to be decided by a simple majority of both communities present and voting. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Provinces were to have full autonomy and residual powers.
Question 68:
Consider the following statements:
- Communal Nationalism is the notion that not only different religious communities have different interests, but also that these interests are incompatible.
- Extreme Communalism is the notion that religious communities have different religious and secular interests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
Characteristic Features of Indian Communalism:
- Communalism (more accurately ‘sectarianism’) is basically an ideology, which gives more importance to one’s own ethnic/religious group rather than to the wider society as a whole, evolved through three broad stages in India.
- Communal Nationalism: The notion that since a group or a section of people belong to a particular religious community, their secular interests are the same, i.e., even those matters which have got nothing to do with religion affect all of them equally. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Liberal Communalism: The notion that since two religious communities have different religious interests, they have different interests in the secular sphere also (i.e., in economic, political, and cultural spheres).
- Extreme Communalism: The notion that not only do different religious communities have different interests, but also that these interests are incompatible, i.e., two communities cannot co-exist because the interests of one community come into conflict with those of the other. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 69:
Consider the following statements regarding Mountbatten Plan:
- It ruled out the independence for Bengal and princely states.
- In case of partition, two dominions and two constituent assemblies would be created with common Governor General.
- Immediate transfer of power on the basis of granting dominion status with a right of secession was suggested by V.P. Menon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
Mountbatten Plan, June 3, 1947:
- The freedom-with-partition formula was coming to be widely accepted well before Mountbatten arrived in India. One major innovation (actually suggested by V.P. Menon) was the immediate transfer of power on the basis of grant of dominion status (with a right of secession), thus obviating the need to wait for an agreement in the constituent assembly on a new political structure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The important points of the plan were as follows:
- Punjab and Bengal Legislative Assemblies would meet in two groups, Hindus and Muslims, to vote for partition. If a simple majority of either group voted for partition, then these provinces would be partitioned.
- In case of partition, two dominions and two constituent assemblies would be created. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Sindh would take its own decision.
- Referendums in NWFP and Sylhet district of Bengal would decide the fate of these areas.
- Since the Congress had conceded a unified India, all their other points would be met, namely,
- Independence for princely states ruled out—they would join either India or Pakistan.
- Independence for Bengal ruled out; Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Accession of Hyderabad to Pakistan ruled out;
- Freedom to come on August 15, 1947; and
- A boundary commission to be set up if partition was to be effected.
- Thus, the League’s demand was conceded to the extent that Pakistan would be created and the Congress’ position on unity was taken into account to make Pakistan as small as possible. Mountbatten’s formula was to divide India but retain maximum unity.
Question 70:
Consider the following pairs:
|
Rivers |
Flows into |
1. |
Nile |
Red Sea |
2. |
Amazon |
Atlantic Ocean |
3. |
Yangtze |
South China Sea |
4. |
Danube |
Black Sea |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Only one pair
Only two pairs
Only three pairs
All the four pairs
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- The Nile River flows into the Mediterranean Sea, which is located in the north of Egypt. The Nile is one of the longest rivers in the world, stretching over 4,000 miles from its source in the heart of Africa to its delta in Egypt where it meets the Mediterranean Sea.
- The Amazon River flows into the Atlantic Ocean. The mouth of the Amazon River is located in northern Brazil, where it empties into the Atlantic Ocean.
- The Yangtze River (also known as the Chang Jiang) flows through China, from its source in the Tibetan Plateau to its mouth at the East China Sea, near the city of Shanghai.
- The Danube River flows into the Black Sea, which is located in southeastern Europe. The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 71:
He had opened a Rajkot College in Kathiawar for political training of Indian princes. He also establishment of Statistical Survey of India and Department of Agriculture and Commerce. While visiting the convict settlement at Port Blair in the Andaman Islands in 1872 for the purpose of inspection, he was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict who used a knife. Which of the following Governor General/Viceroy mentioned below have the above-mentioned characteristics?
Lord Mayo
Lord Lytton
Lord Ripon
Lord Lansdowne
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
Lord Mayo 1869–72:
- Opening of the Rajkot College in Kathiawar and the Mayo College at Ajmer for political training of Indian princes.
- Establishment of Statistical Survey of India.
- Establishment of Department of Agriculture and Commerce.
- Introduction of state railways.
- Lord Mayo took interest in the Prison reforms, especially the convict settlements at the Andaman Islands. The most important legal reform during his time was the passage of the Indian Evidence Act in 1872. The act removed this anomaly and differentiation and introduced a standard set of law applicable to all Indians. Earlier the law system was differentiated and was applied as per the caste, community and social group in question.
- While visiting the convict settlement at Port Blair in the Andaman Islands in 1872 for the purpose of inspection, he was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict who used a knife. Hence, option A is correct.
Question 72:
Consider the following statements regarding Treaty of Allahabad:
- As per the treaty, Shah Alam II resided in the fort of Allahabad till his demise.
- Shah Alam II agreed to issue a farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh.
- Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to give Balwant Singh, Zamindar of Banaras, full possession of his estate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only
1, 2 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The Treaty of Allahabad: Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765—one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to:
- Surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II;
- Pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity; and
- Give Balwant Singh, Zamindar of Banaras, full possession of his estate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Shah Alam II agreed to:
- Reside at Allahabad, to be ceded to him by the Nawab of Awadh, under the Company’s protection; (Shah Alam II resided in the fort of Allahabad for six years. In the year 1771 the Marathas under Mahadaji Shinde captured Delhi. Shah Alam II, was escorted by Mahadaji Shinde and left Allahabad in May 1771 and in January 1772 reached Delhi). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Issue a farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- A provision of Rs 53 lakh to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defence, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.
Question 73:
Consider the following statements regarding Tribal Uprising:
- Pahariya Tribes of Raajmahal Hills rebelled for the area called Damini-Kol.
- Jangal Mahal revolt or Midnapur uprising was caused due to famine and enhanced land revenue demand.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- The Pahariyas: The British expansion on their territory led to an uprising by the martial Pahariyas of the Raj Mahal Hills in 1778. The British were forced to usher in peace by declaring their territory as damni-kol area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Jungle Mahal Revolt or the Chuar Uprising: Famine, enhanced land revenue demands and economic distress goaded the Chuar aboriginal tribesmen of the Jungle Mahal of Midnapore district and also of the Bankura district (in Bengal) to take up arms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- These tribes people were basically farmers and hunters. The uprising lasted from 1766 to 1772 and then, again surfaced between 1795 and 1816.
Question 74:
Treaty of Turkomanchai of (1828) was related to which of the following?
Anglo-Afghan Relation
Russo-Persian Relation
Anglo-Sikh Relation
None of the Above
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- In the early 19th century, increased Russian influence in Persia replaced British influence and thwarted an English scheme for establishment of a new route by River Euphrates to India. Especially after the Treaty of Turkomanchai (1828), the English got alarmed about possible Russian plans regarding India. Soon, there was a search for a scientific frontier from the Indian side. Passes of the north-west seemed to hold the key to enter India. The need was felt for Afghanistan to be under control of a ruler who would be friendly to the British.
- The Torkamanchai treaty is a treaty by which Iran lost many of its northern territories to Russia after its defeat in 1828, bringing an end to the second Russo-Persian wars (1827-1828).
- The treaty was signed on February 21, 1828, by Haj Mirza Abol-hasan Khan and Asef ul-dowleh, chancellor of Fath Ali Shah from Iran's side, and General Ivan Paskievich representing Russia. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 75:
Consider the following pairs:
|
Book |
Author |
1. |
Philosophy of the Bomb |
Bhagwati Charan Vohra |
2. |
Bandi Jeevan |
Bagha Jatin |
3. |
Bharatiya Asprushyatecha Prashna |
Gopal Baba Walangkar |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
None of the pairs
Only one pair
Only two pairs
All three pairs
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Philosophy of the Bomb : Bhagwati Charan Vohra
- Bandi Jeevan : Sachin Sanyal
- Bhartiya Asprushyatecha Prashna : Vitthal Ramji Shinde
- Therefore, only pair 1 is correct. Hence, only one pair is correct.
Question 76:
Consider the following events:
- Organization of Ghadar
- Organization of Provisional Indian government under Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh.
- October revolution of Russia
Arrange them in chronological order.
1-2-3
1-3-2
3-1-2
2-1-3
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Organization of Ghadar-1913
- Organization of Provisional Indian government under Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh -1915
- October revolution of russia-1917
- Hence, option A is correct.
Question 77:
Consider the following pairs with reference to evolution of Indian police force:
- Regular police force in India was first organized by Cornwallis by relieving zamindars of their policing duties.
- He provided for collector to head the police force at district level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- Under the Mughal rule there were the faujdars who helped in maintaining law and order, and amils who were basically revenue collectors but had to contend with rebels, if any. The kotwal was responsible for maintenance of law and order in the cities.
- Even during the dual rule in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa between 1765 and 1772, the zamindars were expected to maintain the staff including thanedars for law and order duties and for maintaining peace, as well as dealing with crime and criminals. But very often, the zamidars neglected their duties. They are even said to have colluded with dacoits and shared their loot.
- In 1770, the institution of the faujdar and amils were abolished. However, in 1774, Warren Hastings restored the institution of faujdars and asked the zamindars to assist them in suppression of dacoits, violence, and disorder. In 1775, faujdar thanas were established in the major towns of large districts and were assisted by several smaller police stations.
- In 1791, Cornwallis organized a regular police force to maintain law and order by going back to and modernizing the old Indian system of thanas (circles) in a district under a daroga (an Indian) and a superintendent of police (SP) at the head of a district. He relieved the zamindars of their police duties. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
Question 78:
Consider the following statements about Military Organization under British:
- Post 1857, British fixed the principle of maintaining one-third White army.
- British deliberately encouraged communal, caste, tribal and regional consciousness among soldiers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Post 1857, domination of the European branch of army over the Indian branches was ensured. The commissions of 1859 and 1879 insisted on the principle of a one-third white army (as against 14 per cent before 1857). Finally, the proportion of Europeans to Indians was carefully fixed at one to two in the Bengal Army and two to five in the Madras and Bombay armies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Communal, caste, tribal, and regional consciousness was encouraged to check the growth of nationalist feelings among soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 79:
Consider the following statements about Judiciary in British India:
- Under the regulating act of 1773, Supreme court was competent to try all British subjects within Calcutta.
- In criminal cases, European subjects could be tried by European judges only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Under the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court was established at Calcutta, which was competent to try all British subjects within Calcutta and the subordinate factories, including Indians and Europeans. It had original and appellate jurisdictions. Often, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court clashed with that of other courts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Positive Aspects of Judiciary under the British
- The rule of law was established.
- The codified laws replaced the religious and personal laws of the rulers.
- Even European subjects were brought under the jurisdiction, although in criminal cases, they could be tried by European judges only. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Government servants were made answerable to the civil courts.
- The Negative Aspects
- The judicial system became more and more complicated and expensive. The rich could manipulate the system.
- There was ample scope for false evidence, deceit, and chicanery.
- Dragged out litigation meant delayed justice.
- Courts became overburdened as litigation increased.
- Often, the European judges were not familiar with the Indian usage and traditions
Question 80:
Consider the following statements:
- Charles Metcalfe repealed Vernacular press act, 1878 to remove restrictions imposed on Indian Press.
- He is known as ‘Liberator of the Indian Press’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- In 1835, Metcalfe had lifted restrictions imposed on the Indian press and is known as ‘liberator of Indian press.’ Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- But Lytton, fearing an increased influence of the nationalist press on public opinion, imposed restrictions on Indian language press through the infamous Vernacular Press Act, 1878. This act had to be repealed under public protest in 1882 during tenure of Rippon. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Question 81:
With reference to Indian History, what does the term ‘Mauza’ stand for?
A traditional Indian musical instrument
A type of pre-Mughal Indian fortification
A style of classical Indian dance
A unit of land for revenue settlement
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The adoption of Mahalwari system in parts of Northern India began to be considered in 1819 when Holt Mackenzie, the secretary to the board of commissioners, recommended this form of the settlement of land revenue.
- Merttins Bird, regarded as the Father of Land Settlements in Northern India, supervised the new scheme. It consisted of a survey of a tract of land showing field boundaries of cultivated and fallow lands.
- This system came to be known as a modified zamindari system because the village headman was a link between the individual cultivator and the government; however, he did not have the rights that the zamindar had.
- In the North Western Provinces, it went under the name of ‘mauzawar’, where ‘mauza’ stands for a village or a unit of assessment. in the region of the Central Provinces its name was ‘malguzari’. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 82:
Consider the following statements:
- Anglicists advocated government spending on education only for modern studies and not for traditional Indian learning.
- Orientalists advocated for emphasis on traditional Indian learning along with western sciences.
- Both the sections had consensus over the question of medium of instruction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Orientalist-Anglicist Controversy:
- Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Orientalists said while Western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Question 83:
Consider the following events of development of Indian education under British:
- Sargent plan of education
- Hunter education commission
- Wood’s despatch
Arrange them in chronological order.
1-2-3
1-3-2
3-2-1
2-1-3
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Wood’s Despatch (1854)
- In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.
- Hunter Education Commission (1882–83)
- Earlier schemes had neglected primary and secondary education. When education was shifted to provinces in 1870, primary and secondary education further suffered because the provinces already had limited resources at their disposal. In 1882, the government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter to review the progress of education in the country since the Despatch of 1854.
- Sargent Plan of Education(1944)
- Sir John Sargent, the Educational Advisor to the Government of India, was deputed to draw up a memorandum for the development of Indian education after the Second World War. His memorandum was submitted to the Central Advisory Board of Education in 1944.
- Hence, option C is correct.
Question 84:
Who among the following was not a member of the Home Rule League?
Ramaswamy Aiyar
Mahatma Gandhi
Madan Mohan Malaviya
M.A. Jinnah
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- The organization of Annie Besant League was much looser than that of Tilak’s, and three members could form a branch while in the case of Tilak’s League each of the six branches had a clearly defined area and activities.
- Most of the work was carried on by Annie Besant and her lieutenants — Arundale, C.P. Ramaswamy Aiyar, and B.P. Wadia — from her headquarters at Adyar.
- Besides her existing Theosophical followers, many others including Jawaharlal Nehru in Allahabad and B. Chakravarti and J. Banerjea in Calcutta joined the Home Rule League.
- When Mrs. Besant and her associates, B.P. Wadia and George Arundale were arrested, those who had stayed away, including many Moderate leaders like Madan Mohan Malaviya, Surendranath Banerjea and M.A. Jinnah now enlisted as members of the Home Rule Leagues to record their solidarity with the internees and their condemnation of the Government’s action.
- In 1920, the All-India Home Rule League merged with Congress which elected Mahatma Gandhi as its president but initially Gandhiji was not a member of Home Rule League (HRL). Later HRL changed its name to Swarajya Sabha. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 85:
Consider the following statements regarding Naga Insurgency:
- The first sign of Naga resistance was seen in the formation of the Naga Club in 1918.
- National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN-IM) came to be seen as the “mother of all insurgencies” in the region and demanding Greater Nagalim.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
Nagaland insurgency:
- The first sign of Naga resistance was seen in the formation of the Naga Club in 1918, which told the Simon Commission in 1929 “to leave us alone to determine for ourselves as in ancient times”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- In 1946 came the Naga National Council (NNC), which, under the leadership of Angami Zapu Phizo, declared Nagaland an independent state on August 14, 1947.
- On March 22, 1952, Phizo formed the underground Naga Federal Government (NFG) and the Naga Federal Army (NFA).
- On November 11, 1975, the government got a section of NNC leaders to sign the Shillong Accord, under which this section of NNC and NFG agreed to give up arms. A group of about 140 members led by Thuingaleng Muivah, refused to accept the Shillong Accord, and formed the National Socialist Council of Nagaland in 1980. In 1988, the NSCN split into NSCN (IM) and NSCN (K) after a violent clash. While the NNC began to fade away, and Phizo died in London in 1991, the NSCN (IM) came to be seen as the “mother of all insurgencies” in the region.
- NSCN demands “Greater Nagalim” comprising “all contiguous Naga-inhabited areas”, along with Nagaland. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 86:
The revolutionary phase became more prominent after disillusionment with Congress and Gandhian methods. Its mains programme/programmes or strategy/strategies were:
- Creating a violent mass revolution throughout the country or trying to subvert the loyalties of the Army.
- They opted to follow in the footsteps of Russian nihilists or the Irish nationalists of individual heroic action.
- Raise funds for revolutionary and organising military conspiracies with the expectation of help from the enemies of Britain.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
- The revolutionaries considered but did not find it practical at that stage to implement the options of creating a violent mass revolution throughout the country or of trying to subvert the loyalties of the Army. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Instead, they opted to follow in the footsteps of Russian nihilists or the Irish nationalists.
- This methodology involved individual heroic actions, such as organising assassinations of unpopular officials and of traitors and informers among the revolutionaries themselves. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Conducting swadeshi dacoities to raise funds for revolutionary activities; and (during the First World War) organising military conspiracies with the expectation of help from the enemies of Britain. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The idea was to strike terror in the hearts of the rulers, arouse people and remove the fear of authority from their minds.
- The revolutionaries intended to inspire the people by appealing to their patriotism, especially the idealistic youth who would finally drive the British out.
Question 87:
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Alipore Bomb Conspiracy case of 1908?
- It was organised to kill Douglas Kingsford, who was an unpopular British Chief Presidency Magistrate.
- Aurobindo Ghosh and his brother Barindra Ghosh, Kanailal Dutt, Satyendra Bose were tried and Aurobindo Ghosh sentenced to life imprisonment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- In 1908 a plan was made to kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate D.H. Kingsford of Muzaffarpur.
- The task was entrusted to Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki. They threw the bombs on a vehicle coming out of the magistrate’s home on April 30, 1908.
- The magistrate could not be killed as he was not in the vehicle, but two British ladies were killed in the attack. Prafulla Chaki committed suicide after cornered by the Police and Khudi Ram Bose was arrested.
- The whole Anushilan group was arrested including the Ghosh brothers, Aurobindo and Barindra, who were tried in the Alipore conspiracy case, variously called Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Ghosh brothers were charged with ‘conspiracy’ or ‘waging war against the King’ – the equivalent of high treason and punishable with death by hanging.
- Chittaranjan Das defended Aurobindo. Aurobindo was acquitted of all charges.
- Barindra Ghosh, as the head of the secret society of revolutionaries and Ullaskar Dutt, as the maker of bombs, were given the death penalty which was later commuted to life in prison. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
Question 88:
Consider the following statements regarding Bardoli Satyagraha:
- The Primary cause behind Bardoli Satyagraha was increase in land revenue.
- In this movement, Vallabh Bhai Patel earned the title of ‘Sardar’.
- As a part of movement an intelligence wing was also set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- The Bardoli Satyagraha sparked off in January 1926 when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30 per cent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Congress leaders were quick to protest and a Bardoli Inquiry Committee was set up to go into the issue. The committee found the revenue hike to be unjustified. In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment until the Government appointed an independent tribunal or accepted the current amount as full payment.
- An intelligence wing was set up to make sure all the tenants followed the movement’s resolutions. Those who opposed the movement faced social boycott. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Question 89:
Consider the following statements:
- Trade unions were recognized as legal associations by Trade Union act, 1926.
- All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) adopted a resolution of Complete independence from British rule, years before the Indian National Congress adopted such resolution in 1929.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- The Trade Union Act, 1926:
- recognised trade unions as legal associations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- laid down conditions for registration and regulation of trade union activities;
- secured immunity, both civil and criminal, for trade unions from prosecution for legitimate activities, but put some restrictions on their political activities.
- AITUC in its second session in 1921 in Jharia had adopted a resolution of Complete independence from British rule, almost eight years before the platform of freedom struggle- the Indian National Congress adopted such resolution in 1929. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 90:
Consider the following pairs with reference to British policies:
- Policy of Ring Fence: Creation of buffer zones to defend the company’s frontiers.
- Policy of Masterly Inactivity: Foreign policy of self-reliance and self-restraint, defense rather than defiance
- Policy of Subordinate Isolation: States relinquish all forms of external and internal sovereignty.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
None of the pairs
Only one pair
Only two pairs
All three pairs
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Policy of Ring Fence (1765–1813)
- This policy was reflected in Warren Hastings’ wars against the Marathas and Mysore, and aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. The main threat was from the Marathas and Afghan invaders (the Company undertook to organise Awadh’s defence to safeguard Bengal’s security) Hence, pair 1 is correct.
- Policy of Subordinate Isolation (1813–1857)
- Now, the imperial idea grew and the theory of paramountcy began to develop—Indian states were supposed to act in subordinate cooperation with the British government and acknowledge its supremacy. The states surrendered all forms of external sovereignty but retained sovereignty in internal administration. Hence, pair 3 is not correct.
- Policy of Masterly Inactivity
- John Lawrence (1864–69) started a policy of masterly inactivity, which was a reaction to the disasters of the First Afghan War and an outcome of practical common sense and an intimate knowledge of the frontier problem and of Afghan passion for independence. Even when Dost Mohammed died in 1863, there was no interference in the war of succession. John Lawrence's foreign policy was one of self-reliance and self-restraint, of defense rather than defiance, of waiting and watching so that he could strike harder and in the right direction if the time came. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Question 91:
Consider the following characteristics of foreign policy:
- Disapproval of participation in any kind of military alliance.
- Anti colonial policy.
- Support to policy of anti-apartheid.
- Promotion of disarmament.
- Policy of friendship with every country of both American and Soviet blocs.
Which of the following are characteristic features of Nehruvian Foreign policy?
1, 2 and 3 only
1,2,3 and 5 only
2,4,5 only
1,2,3,4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Explanation
The basic principles of India’s foreign policy, during the Nehruvian Era, broadly revolved around the premises given below.
- Disapproval of participation in any military alliance either bilaterally or multilaterally.
- An independent foreign policy not tied to any of the two contending power blocs, though this was not a synonym for a neutral foreign policy.
- A policy of friendship with every country, whether of the American bloc or of the Soviet bloc.
- An active anti-colonial policy which supported decolonisation in Asian-African-Latin American countries.
- Open support to the policy of anti-apartheid.
- Promotion of disarmament as the key to world peace. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 92:
Tashkent declaration, signed between India and Pakistan, was sponsored by which of the following?
United States of America
Soviet Union
Uzbekistan
United Nations
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
Peace Agreement at Tashkent:
- A South Asian peace conference was held in January 1966 at Tashkent (the capital of Uzbekistan, then one of the republics of the Soviet Union), which was sponsored by the Soviet President, Alexei Kosygin. Hence, option B is correct.
- It was with the mediation of Kosygin that President Ayub Khan of Pakistan and Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri of India met and signed the Tashkent Declaration on January 10, 1966 to “restore normal and peaceful relations between their countries and to promote understanding and friendly relations between their peoples”.
Question 93:
Consider the following pairs:
- Lee commission- Civil services
- Lothian commission - Police service
- Linlithgow Commission - Indian agriculture
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
None of the pairs
Only one pair
Only two pairs
All three pairs
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Linlithgow Commission looked into the crisis in Indian agriculture. Linlithgow was the Governor-general and Viceroy from 1936-1943. He chaired the Royal Commission on Agriculture also known as Linlithgow commission in 1926. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
- The Indian Franchise Committee also known as the Lothian Committee was one of the expert committees set at the conclusion of the Second Round Table Conference in London. The purpose of the committee was to suggest an electoral roadmap for India which would help in deciding India’s constitutional future. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.
- Lee Commission was appointed in 1923 to look into the organisation and general conditions of service as well as the methods of recruitment for Europeans and Indians in the civil services. Being concerned only with the superior civil services, it came to be known as the Royal Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
Question 94:
Consider the following states:
- Manipur
- Nagaland
- Goa
- Himachal Pradesh
Arrange these states in the order of conferment of statehood:
2-4-1-3
3-2-4-1
2-1-4-3
3-2-1-4
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- India acquired Goa, Daman and Diu from the Portuguese by means of a police action in 1961. They were constituted as a union territory by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. Later, in 1987, Goa was conferred a statehood.
- In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam.
- In 1971, the union territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated to the status of a state (18th state of the Indian Union).
- In 1972, the political map of Northeast India underwent a major change. Thus, the two union territories of Manipur and Tripura and the sub-state of Meghalaya got statehood and the two union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North-East Frontier Agency–NEFA) came into being. Hence, option A is correct.
Question 95:
Consider the following statements:
- Deccan riots of the late 19th century were led by ryots and moneylenders against British rule.
- One of the grievances of ryots of Deccan was heavy taxation under Permanent settlement.
- The Deccan Riots were primarily caused by a crash in cotton prices.
Which of the above is/are not correct about Deccan Riots?
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Deccan Riots: The ryots of Deccan region of western India suffered heavy taxation under the Ryotwari system. Here again the peasants found themselves trapped in a vicious network with the moneylender as the exploiter and the main beneficiary. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- These moneylenders were mostly outsiders—Marwaris or Gujaratis. The conditions had worsened due to a crash in cotton prices after the end of the American Civil War in 1864, the government’s decision to raise the land revenue by 50 per cent in 1867, and a succession of bad harvests. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- In 1874, the growing tension between the moneylenders and the peasants resulted in a social boycott movement organised by the ryots against the “outsider” moneylenders. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Question 96:
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh’s division:
- B.N. Srikrishna committee preferred unified Andhra Pradesh over creation of Telangana.
- Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act of 2014 provided for common capital at Hyderabad for both the new states for 10 years only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- In November 2009, KCR went on a fast unto death in the cause of Telangana as a separate state. The government at the Centre gave in and, in December 2009, announced that the process to form the state was being initiated. The decision caused much resentment among the Congress MPs from coastal Andhra, but it had to be accepted in the end.
- The Centre appointed a commission headed by a retired judge of the Supreme Court, B.N. Srikrishna, to look into the matter of bifurcation. The commission submitted its report in December 2010, and preferred unified Andhra Pradesh but it was rejected by the TRS. The creation of an exclusive development board for the region, as suggested by the committee and conversion of Hyderabad into a Union Territory was unacceptable to supporters of separate Telangana. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- After much negotiation, Parliament cleared the Telangana Bill (Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act of 2014) in February 2014. As per the act, Andhra Pradesh was formally divided to form the new state of Telangana. While the two states were to share Hyderabad as capital for ten years, the Centre was to provide funds to Andhra Pradesh (also Seemandhra) to build a new capital. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Question 97:
The reason behind rebellion of Naval Ratings were:
- Racial Discrimination
- Abuse by superior officers
- INA trials
- Wavell Plan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Explanation
- Rebellion by Naval Ratings: On February 18, 1946 some 1100 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) ratings of HMIS Talwar went on a strike to protest against:
- Racial discrimination (demanding equal pay for Indian and white soldiers)
- Unpalatable food
- Abuse by superior officers
- Arrest of a rating for scrawling ‘Quit India’ on HMIS Talwar
- INA trials
- Use of Indian troops in Indonesia, demanding their withdrawal.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
- The rebellious ratings hoisted the tricolour, crescent, and the hammer and sickle flags on the mast of the rebel fleet. Other ratings soon joined and they went around Bombay in lorries holding Congress flags threatening Europeans and policemen.
Question 98:
What scheme of colonial government was referred to as a "postdated check" by Gandhiji?
August Offer
Cripps Mission
Rowlett Act
Cabinet Mission
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Cripps Mission: In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
- The main proposals of the mission were as follows:
- An Indian Union with a dominion status
- A constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
- Defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor general’s powers would remain intact.
- Gandhi described the scheme as “a post-dated cheque”; Nehru pointed out that the “existing structure and autocratic powers would remain and a few of us will become the viceroy’s liveried camp followers and look after canteens and the like”. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 99:
Consider the following:
- Ahmadiyya movement of 19th century was based on principle of universal religion of humanity.
- Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was among the foremost leaders of the movement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation
- The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of Islam which originated from India. It was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889.
- It was based on liberal principles. It described itself as the standard-bearer of Mohammedan Renaissance, and based itself, like the Brahmo Samaj, on the principles of universal religion of all humanity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Sir Syed Ahmad Khan found the Muslim society to be educationally, socially and culturally backward. He blamed the prevailing education system for the degrading state of the Muslim society. This led Sir Syed to initiate a movement for the intellectual, educational, social and cultural regeneration of the Muslim society. He led Aligarh movement. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 100:
She went on from girls’ education to question many social evils and work towards eradicating them. She started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She rigorously campaigned against the dehumanisation of widows and advocated widow remarriage, organised a successful barbers’ strike to denounce the inhumane practice of shaving widows’ heads. She set up a home called Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha (home to prevent infanticide), where unwed mothers and widows who became pregnant under unfortunate circumstances could have safe deliveries instead of resorting to killing the infants or themselves. She set an example against the evil of untouchability by opening their own water storage to everyone. Which of the following Social Reformer’s great work described above?
Sarla Devi Chaudhrani
Savitribai Phule
Cornelia Sorabji
None of the Above
Correct Answer : B
Explanation
- Savitribai went on from girls’ education to question many social evils and work towards eradicating them. She started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She and her husband rigorously campaigned against the dehumanisation of widows and advocated widow remarriage.
- Savitribai is said to have organised a successful barbers’ strike to denounce the inhumane practice of shaving widows’ heads. With her husband, she set up a home called Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha (home to prevent infanticide) in 1863, where unwed mothers and widows who became pregnant under unfortunate circumstances could have safe deliveries instead of resorting to killing the infants or themselves. Savitribai is said to have organised a successful barbers’ strike to denounce the inhumane practice of shaving widows’ heads.
- She and her husband set an example against the evil of untouchability by opening their own water storage to everyone. After Jyotiba’s death, Savitribai took over the Satya Shodhak Samaj, presiding over the meetings, guiding the workers, and working for plague victims. She died in 1897, getting infected by the plague while caring for a patient. Hence, Option B is correct.