UPSC Prelims 2020 Answer Key & Analysis

Prelims Analysis

Prev Next

2020 Prelims Analysis

05 Oct 2020
185 min read

1. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
They can be used in biochemical sensors.
Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are cylindrical molecules consisting of a hexagonal arrangement of hybridized carbon atoms, which may be formed by rolling up sheet(s) of graphene.
In recent years, carbon nanotubes have attracted many researchers as a drug delivery carrier. As carbon nanotubes have a high surface area, they go into the cell by the millions, and can have a very high efficiency of delivery to a specific cell. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Carbon nanotubes can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body as they are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Recently, NASA has demonstrated Biochemical Sensors Using Carbon Nanotube Arrays. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Consider the following activities:

Spraying pesticides on a crop field
Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAV) or drones are aircrafts that can be navigated without a human pilot on board. Drones can be navigated via control from the ground, using a GPS tracking system.
Initially, drones have been developed mostly for military applications. However, its use has expanded to scientific, recreational, commercial and other applications including peacekeeping and surveillance, product delivery, aerial photography, agriculture, etc.
They are now increasingly used to spray pesticides in agricultural fields to protect standing crops from pests. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Scientists have also been using drones to study active volcanoes. The drone can both collect breath samples and take high-resolution photos of the whales from the air to assess general health conditions. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to

(a) Voyager-2

(b) New horizons

(d) Evolved LISA

Explanation:

Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) is a spectacular plan of setting into space three spacecrafts, a mother and two daughter spacecrafts, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over.
50 million km. Each arm of the imaginary triangle, from the mother to each daughter spacecraft, will measure about a million km.
eLISA seeks to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1 mHz to about 100 mHz. To achieve this, it is necessary for the interferometers to have an arm length of a million kilometres and that is impossible to achieve with an earth based setup.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Consider the following statements:

Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Germline gene therapy is the replacement of genes in egg or sperm cells with which an offspring inherits a new trait. It allows for the correction of disease- causing gene variants that are certain to be passed down from generation to generation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology is employed to modify human embryos before they are transferred into women’s uterus. Recently, researchers had successfully created the world’s first genetically- edited baby. By using CRISPR technology, the genomes of embryos were edited to disable a gene, CCR5, which allows HIV to infect cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Due to certain anatomical and physiological features shared with humans, the pig is considered an important animal model of human diseases with unique advantages in surgery and xenotransplantation studies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCVs) prevent pneumococcal diseases. Pneumococcal disease refers to any illness caused by pneumococcal bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) is a leading cause of bacterial pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis in children.
PCVs could potentially prevent a substantial proportion of episodes of bacteremic disease, pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis and otitis media, especially in young children. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The growing resistance of pneumococcal bacteria to commonly used antibiotics underlines the urgent need for vaccines to be used to control pneumococcal disease. PCV prevents antibiotic resistant pneumococcal infections. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Redness, swelling, pain, or tenderness where the shot is given, and fever, loss of appetite, fussiness (irritability), feeling tired, headache and chills can happen. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of

(a) Digital security infrastructure

(b) Food security infrastructure

(d) Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Explanation:

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world. Under this system, one or more trusted parties digitally sign documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key belongs to a particular user or device. The key can then be used as an identity for the user in digital networks.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?

Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do.
Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an animal cell has many small vacuoles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Plant and animal cells are different as the former possess cell walls, chloroplasts, plastids and a large central vacuole which are absent in animal cells. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.
On the other hand, animal cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all plant cells. Both plant and animal cells have plasma membranes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

Automobile exhaust
Tobacco smoke
Wood burning
Using varnished wooden furniture
Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Benzene (C₆H₆) is a colorless, flammable liquid with a sweet odor. It evaporates quickly when exposed to air. Benzene is formed from natural processes, such as volcanoes and forest fires, but most of the exposure to benzene results from human activities.
The main sources of benzene in the environment include automobile exhaust, industrial sources, and fuel evaporation from gasoline filling stations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Benzene has been detected at high levels in indoor air. Although some of this exposure might be from building materials (paints, adhesives, etc.), most is from cigarette smoke. Hence, statement 2 and 4 are correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?

Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
Opening up to more foreign banks
Maintaining full capital account convertibility

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Foreign debt is money borrowed by a government, corporation or private household from another country’s government or private lenders. Total foreign debt can be a combination of short-term and long-term liabilities.
In comparison to long term foreign debts, short term foreign debts are more volatile and can cause liquidity crunch in the times of global crisis. Therefore, not depending on short-term foreign borrowings can certainly give some immunity to India in times of global crisis. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Foreign banks have been instrumental in introducing Indian customers to ATMs and credit cards. Besides, with Indian firms increasingly looking for investments overseas, foreign banks can play a critical role in raising money for them, connecting them with a global clientele and consumers.
However, Foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) today are the biggest shareholders of many foreign banks, meaning in the event of global crisis, the FPIs will withdraw their money and park it somewhere else, thus, creating volatility and a cash crunch in the market. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Capital account convertibility is the freedom of foreign investors to purchase Indian assets (such as equity, bonds, property) and that of the domestic citizens to purchase foreign financial assets. Some of the disadvantages of full capital account convertibility include higher volatility, an increased burden of foreign debt, and an effect on the balance of trade and exports. Thus allowing full capital account convertibility will hurt the economy in the times of global crisis. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

10. If you withdraw ₹1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

(a) to reduce it by ₹1,00,000

(b) to increase it by ₹1,00,000

(d) to leave it unchanged

Explanation:

The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called money supply. It needs to be noted that total stock of money is different from total supply of money.
Supply of money is only that part of total stock of money which is held by the public at a particular point of time.
The circulating money involves the currency, printed notes, money in the deposit accounts and in the form of other liquid assets.
RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4.
- M1 = CU + DD
- M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
- M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
- M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates)
CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money. Their order of liquidity is: M1 > M2 > M3 > M4.
M1 is a narrow measure of the money supply that includes physical currency, demand deposits, traveler’s checks, and other checkable deposits.
M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions. Hence, on the withdrawal of cash from the Demand Deposit Account, there will be no immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term 'paramitas'?

(a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style

(b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas

(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path

(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India

Explanation:

Paramita or parami (in Sanskrit and Pali respectively) is a Buddhist term often translated as "perfection".
In Mahayana Buddhism, the bodhisattva practices the six paramitas, or transcendent perfections which are generosity, discipline, patience, diligence, meditative concentration, and wisdom.
Parmitas are described in Buddhist commentaries as noble character qualities generally associated with enlightened beings.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around

women’s right to gain education
age of consent
restitution of conjugal rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Rakhmabai (1864-1955) made her mark in history due to the legal case she was involved in, which contributed to the enactment of the Age of Consent Act, 1891.
In 1885, after 12 years of marriage, her husband sought “restitution of conjugal rights”, Rakhmabai was ordered to go live with her husband or spend six months in jail. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Rakhmabai refused to live with the man she was married to as a child, as she had no say in the marriage. Rakhmabai wrote to Queen Victoria. The Queen overruled the court’s verdict and dissolved the marriage.
The ripples that the case created led to the influence on the passage of the Age of Consent Act, 1891, which made child marriages illegal across the British Empire. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Though Rakhmabai became the first women doctor to practice medicine in British India, the case was not related to the women’s right to gain education. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

13. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of

(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters

(b) its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions

(d) Government control over the planters

Explanation:

Indigo is a blue dye which comes from the indigo plant. During the rule of the East India Company and later during British Raj, it was widely grown in India. It was often called “Blue Gold” and widely traded in European market.
There was a significant increase in the indigo production in the 18th and 19th centuries in Bengal and Bihar due to increasing demand and production. However, in the beginning of the 20^th century, with the invention of synthetic indigo which was cheaper and took less time during production than agricultural indigo, the demand for indigo cultivation in India declined significantly. Synthetic Indigo made natural indigo non-profitable for farmers as well as traders.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

14. Wellesley established the Fort William College Calcutta because

(a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so

(b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India

(d) he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India

Explanation:

To train British officials, Fort William College was established by Lord Richard Wellesley, Governor- General of Bengal (1798 to 1805) in 1800. The college aimed to create civil servants who would be familiar with Indian languages, history, culture and local laws.
Alongside, they would also receive training in Western languages and the art of administration.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

15. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Trumult is the description of which of the following events?

(a) The Revolt of 1857

(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921

(d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900

Explanation:

Birsa Munda (1875-1900) was born in the Munda tribe which inhabited the Chotanagpur area Bengal Presidency (Present-day Jharkhand). He is often referred to as ‘Dharti Abba’ or the Earth Father.
Birsa Munda led the rebellion that came to be known as Ulgulan (revolt) or the Munda rebellion against the British government-imposed feudal state system.
He awakened the masses and sowed the seeds of revolt in them against the landlords as well as the Britishers.
His struggle against the exploitation and discrimination against tribals led to the passing of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act in 1908 which restricted the passing of land from the tribal people to non-tribals.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

16. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:

Panini is associated with Pushyamitra
Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana
Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due to its teachers’ expertise. Among its noted pupils were the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini. He was an expert in language and grammar and authored one of the greatest works on grammar called Ashtadhyayi (500 BCE).
The Shunga Empire was an ancient Indian dynasty from Magadha that controlled areas of the central and eastern Indian subcontinent from around 185 to 75 BCE. The dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the fall of the Mauryan Empire. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Amarasimha, a Sanskrit grammarian and poet, is said to have been one of the nine gems that adorned the court of Vikramaditya (Chandragupta II) whose reign was around 375 CE. Harshavardhana ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Kalidasa, the classical Sanskrit author, playwright and dramatist, flourished during the reign of Chandragupta II, and therefore lived around the 4th-5th century CE. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

17. In the context of recent advances of human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for

(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm

(b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells

(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Explanation:

Pronuclear transfer involves the transfer of pronuclei from one zygote to another. This technique first requires fertilisation of healthy donated eggs (provided by the mitochondrial donor) with the intended male parent sperm. Simultaneously, the intending mother’s affected oocytes are fertilised with the intending father’s sperm.
By using a technique, called ‘Maternal Spindle transfer’, the maternal DNA is put into the egg of a donor woman, which is then fertilized using the father’s sperm.
The procedure was developed to help existing In- vitro-Fertilization (IVF) treatments in which mothers have mitochondrial diseases.
Mutations in maternal DNA are a cause of mitochondrial disease, a heterogeneous group of diseases that can lead to premature death, sometimes in infancy or childhood. Most mitochondrial diseases lack specific treatments, and women who carry the causative mutations are at high risk of transmitting the diseases to their offspring.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

18. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
Create meaningful short stories and songs
Disease diagnosis
Text-to-Speech Conversion
Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Google is using the Internet of Things (IoT) and Artificial Intelligence (AI) from its DeepMind acquisition to reduce energy consumption in its data centres by as much as 30%. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Using AI as a tool to make music or aid musicians has been in practice for quite some time. In the 1990s, David Bowie helped develop the Verbasizer, which took literary source material and randomly reordered the words to create new combinations that could be used as lyrics. In 2016, Sony used software called Flow Machines to create a melody in the style of The Beatles. Music-making AI software has become advanced in the past few years. It’s a viable tool that can and is being used by producers to help in the creative process. Hence, option 2 is correct.
AI combined with robotics and the Internet of Medical Things (IoMT) could potentially be the new nervous system for healthcare, presenting solutions to address healthcare problems. Integration of AI technology in cancer care could improve the accuracy and speed of diagnosis, aid clinical decision-making, and lead to better health outcomes. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Speech synthesis is the artificial production of human speech. It is a way to convert language to human voice (or speech). For example, Google’s Assistant, Amazon’s Echo, Apple’s Siri, etc. Hence, option 4 is correct.
Potential cases of Al’s use in the energy sector include energy system modelling and forecasting to decrease unpredictability and increase efficiency in power balancing and usage. Wireless transmission of electrical energy is not a new technology. In a wireless power transmission system, a transmitter device, driven by electric power from a power source, generates a time-varying electromagnetic field, which transmits power across space to a receiver device, which extracts power from the field and supplies it to an electrical load. Hence, option 5 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

19. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?

VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
VLC has no electromagnetic interference.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Visible Light Communication (VLC) systems employ visible light for communication that occupy the electromagnetic spectrum from 375 nm to 780 nm. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
VLC is known as short-range optical wireless communication. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Li-Fi, a kind of VLC, has a range of approximately 10 meters and it cannot pass through walls or any solid object.
VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than bluetooth. The VLC uses visible light for communication to provide high speed internet up to 10 Gb/s while Bluetooth 4.0 promises speeds up to 25 Mb/s. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
VLC has no electromagnetic interference. The radio frequency (RF) based signals have the problem of interference with other RF signals such as its interference with pilot navigational equipment signals in aircraft. Therefore, in the areas that are sensitive to electromagnetic radiation (such as aircrafts) VLC can be a better solution. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

20. With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements:

It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls.
The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

A blockchain is a form of public ledger, which is a series (or chain) of blocks on which transaction details are recorded and stored on a public database after suitable authentication and verification by the designated network participants. A public ledger can be viewed but cannot be controlled by any single user. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The blockchain is not only about the cryptocurrency but it turns out that blockchain is actually a pretty reliable way of storing data about other types of transactions, as well.
In fact, blockchain technology can be used in property exchanges, bank transactions, healthcare, smart contracts, supply chain, and even in voting for a candidate. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Although cryptocurrency is regulated and needs approval of the central authorities, blockchain technology is not only about cryptocurrency. It can have various uses, and applications based on basic features of the technology can be developed without anybody’ approval. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

21. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Explanation:

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it. In such a system, the role of President or monarch is primarily ceremonial and the Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields effective power.
According to the Article 75(3) of Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) which is one the constituents of the Parliament. The rules of Lok Sabha provide a mechanism for testing this collective responsibility. They allow any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, to introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. If the no confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the government falls.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

22. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Explanation:

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned in the Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The DPSP constitutes a comprehensive social, economic and political programme for a modern and welfare state. These principles emphasise that the State shall try to promote welfare of people by providing them basic facilities like shelter, food and clothing. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ which was absent during the colonial era.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

23. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The constitution of India does not define the basic structure, it is a judicial innovation.
In Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.
However, the court did not define the term ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism, democracy — as being its part.
The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of law, Independence of the judiciary, doctrine of separation of powers, sovereign democratic republic, the parliamentary system of government, the principle of free and fair elections, welfare state, etc. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 13(2) of the Constitution prescribes that the Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. Thus, the constitution itself provides for the judicial review to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and rights. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

24. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

(a) the final goal of a stateless society

(b) class struggle

(d) economic determinism

Explanation:

The final aim of both Gandhism and Marxism is the establishment of a stateless and classless society, however their means for achieving this aim are different. Mahatma Gandhi wanted to achieve this end through non-violent means but Marx wanted to achieve it through violent means.
Ways to achieve classless society
- Marxism: Overthrow of capitalism; social ownership of means of social production; compulsory labour.
- Gandhism: Doctrine of trusteeship: moral persuasion of capitals to regard themselves as ‘trustee’ of public property; restore dignity of labour.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

25. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency or the implementation of public policy

Explanation:

Civil services or the bureaucracy constitutes the professionals who are permanent and salaried employees that are a part of the government’s executive organ. They are politically neutral and their main job is to facilitate the effective working of different government departments and public policy implementations. They, however, work under the control and leadership of the ministers. The bureaucratic setup is designed to maintain uniformity and controls within an organization.
Good policies and laws can really serve their objectives only when these are efficiently implemented by the civil servants.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

26. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Explanation:

The Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution. It contains the ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution. The salient features of the Constitution have evolved directly and indirectly from these objectives which flow from the Preamble.
In Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court held that:
- The Preamble of the Constitution be considered as part of the Constitution.
- The Preamble is not the supreme power or source of any restriction or prohibition but it plays an important role in the interpretation of statutes and provisions of the Constitution.
In Union Government vs LIC of India Case (1995), the Supreme Court has once again held that Preamble is the integral part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable in a court of law in India. Its objectives are implemented through various acts and policies.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

27. "Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to

(a) a loan system of the World Bank

(b) one of the operations of a Central Bank

(d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Explanation:

Gold Tranche or Reserve Tranche is the component of a member country’s quota with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) i.e. in the form of gold or foreign currency. For any member country, out of the total quota, 25% should be paid in the form of foreign currency or gold. Hence, this is called a reserve tranche or gold tranche. The remaining 75% can be in domestic currencies and it is called credit tranche. It is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

28. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They shall be enforceable by courts.
They shall not be enforceable by any court.
The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Unlike the Fundamental Rights (Part III), the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) contained in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Constitution are non justiciable in nature i.e. they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct, while statement 2 is correct.
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country. It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Also, the Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

29. Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

According to Article 164 of the Constitution, a minister who is not a member of the state legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. The provision allows a non-legislator to occupy a post in the council of ministers, including the office of the chief minister for six months. Within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be minister.
Moreover, to become a member of the state legislature one must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. Such a person automatically becomes eligible to vote as under Article 326, the minimum age to be registered as a voter is 18 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to the Section 8(3) of the Representationof People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified for contesting an election (MLA or MP) from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

30. Consider the following statements:

The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
By convention (not provided by the Constitution of India), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. The Budget Session is held towards the beginning of the year; a three-week Monsoon Session follows from July to August; and then there is the Winter Session in November-December. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
There is no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a year — in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more than 120 days a year. This has come down to approximately 70 days in the last decade. However, several committees have recommended that Parliament should meet for at least 120 days in a year. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

31. Consider the following statements:

Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

As per a Supreme Court ruling of September, 2018, Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months. The Supreme Court has read down Section 2(d) of the Aadhaar Act which allowed storage of such data for a period of five years, to refrain government authorities from storing metadata of transactions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
SC has also struck down Aadhaar Regulation 26(c) which allowed Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to store metadata relating to Aadhaar based authentications or authentication history for private firms. Accordingly, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has directed insurance companies not to mandatorily ask for the Aadhaar details for know-you-customer (KYC) requirements or carry out authentication using e-KYC from UIDAI. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
Further, the amendment made to Section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 has been upheld. It stipulates a condition that the State government can mandate use of Aadhaar authentication for beneficiaries for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

32. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

Explanation:

Rajya Sabha enjoys certain special powers compared to Lok Sabha which are as follows:
- Power to transfer a subject from the State List to Union List for a specified period (Article 249).
- To create additional All India Services (Article 312).
- To endorse Emergency under Article 352 for a limited period when the Lok Sabha remains dissolved.
Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, amending the constitution, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. Hence, option (b) is correct.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
A cut motion is a special power vested in members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand being discussed for specific allocation by the government in the Finance Bill as part of the Demand for Grants. If the motion is adopted, it amounts to a no-confidence vote, and if the government fails to jot up numbers in the lower House, it is obliged to resign according to the norms of the House. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

33. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

The MPLAD scheme was formulated in 1993 to enable Members of Parliament (MPs) to recommend to the District Collector for works to the tune of ?5 crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt need. The durable assets include drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Out of an amount of ?5 crores, an MP shall recommend at least 15% for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste (SC) population, and 7.5% for areas inhabited by Scheduled Tribe (ST) population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Each year under MPLADS, MPs receive ?5 crore in two instalments of ?2.5 crore each. Funds under MPLADS are non-lapsable i.e. in case of non-release of fund in a particular year it is carried forward to the next year. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

34. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

Explanation:

There are six categories of Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution:
- Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
- Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
- Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
- Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
- Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)
- Right to Constitutional Remedies (Articles 32)
Article 17, under the Rights to Equality (Articles 14- 18), talks about the abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice.
It abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

35. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) the conventional practice

Explanation:

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Constitution.
Article 50 of the Constitution reads as under: Separation of Judiciary from Executive - The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

36. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Explanation:

According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS). It is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government in a financial year.
A ‘Money Bill’ is defined under Article 110(1).
As per Article 113, the estimates of expenditure (as Demands for Grants) from the Consolidated Fund of India must be included in the Annual Financial Statement and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 seeks to institutionalise financial discipline, reduce India’s fiscal deficit, improve macroeconomic management and the overall management of the public funds by moving towards a balanced budget.
This Act mandates the Central Government to lay before the Houses of Parliament, Macro-Economic Framework Statement, Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement and Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement along with the Annual Financial Statement and Demands for Grants.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

37. A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

Explanation:

A constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution, which may be written or unwritten, accepted as the fundamental law of the polity that effectively controls the exercise of political power.
The core component of the constitutional government is the existence of a “Rule-of Law” or a set of “basic laws” that binds both public office-holders and all members of a society (i.e. citizens) within a given territory.
The essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution of power among the executive, legislative and judicial branches of government, with a particular view in balancing these powers.
The constitutional government is a type of regime that is characterized by the fact that the government operates within a set of legal and institutional constraints that both limits its power (limited government) and protects the individual liberty.
A constitutional government may not have legislature, could be a bi-party government and need not be a popular government and can instead be a monarchy.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

38. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), adopted and proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in 1948, establishes the equality and dignity of every human being and stipulates that every Government has a core duty to enable all people to enjoy all their inalienable rights and freedoms.
Preamble: The objectives of Preamble such as Justice (social, economic, and political), Equality and Liberty also reflect the principles of UDHR. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Provided under Articles 36 to 51, DPSPs are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state. These DPSP act as obligation on state and are in consonance with human rights. Some of the DPSP that are in sync with human rights are as follows:
- Article 38: Promoting the welfare state
- Article 39: Minimizing inequalities
- Article 39A: Free legal aid
- Article 41: Supporting vulnerable sections of society like unemployed, sick, disabled and old age persons.
- Article 43: Securing living wage
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Fundamental duties (Article 51A): These are basically civic and moral obligations of all citizens of India. As of now, there are 11 fundamental duties in India, which are written in Part IV A of the Constitution. Article 51A (k) talks about providing opportunities for education to the child between the age of 6 and 14 years by the parents or guardian. This aspect somehow relates to ensuring the dignity of children through education. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

39. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9^th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
Under Section 12 of the Act, the persons eligible for getting free legal services include:
- Women and children
- Members of SC/ST
- Industrial workmen
- Victims of disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake
- Disabled persons
- Persons in custody
- Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar
Further, according to Section 12(h) of the Act, persons in receipt of annual income less than `9000 or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government, if the case is before a court other than the Supreme Court, and less than ?12000 or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government, if the case is before the Supreme Court, are also eligible for free legal services. The income ceiling limit prescribed under Section 12(h) of the Act varies across States. It ranges from ?9000 in Lakshadweep to ?3,00,000 in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. Therefore, not all senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
There is no such clear cut demarcation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) i.e. whether a member of OBC with an annual income of less than ?3,00,000 will avail free legal aid under the Act. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

40. Consider the following pairs:

	International Agreement/set-up		Subject
1.	Alma-Ata Declaration	—	Healthcare of the people
2.	Hague Convention	—	Biological and chemical weapons
3.	Talanoa Dialogue	—	Global climate change
4.	Under2 Coalition	—	Child rights

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Alma-Ata Declaration: It was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care (PHC) which was held in Almaty, Kazakhstan in 1978. It urged all the governments, health care workers and development workers to promote and protect the primary health of all the people. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Hague Convention: There are a series of Hague Convention on different subjects such as Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict, Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction, etc. But it is not related to biological and chemical weapons. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Talanoa Dialogue: The Dialogue was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP 23) in Bonn (Germany) in 2017. Talanoa is a traditional word used in Fiji and across the Pacific to reflect a process of inclusive, participatory and transparent dialogue. The purpose of Talanoa is to share stories, build empathy and to make wise decisions for the collective good. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Under2 Coalition: The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement. The coalition brings together more than 220 subnational governments who represent over 1.3 billion people and 43% of the global economy. Currently, Telangana and Chhattisgarh are signatories to this pact from India. Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

41. With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1.	Aurang	—	In-charge of treasury of the State
2.	Banian	—	Indian agent of the East India Company
3.	Mirasidar	—	Designated revenue payer to the State

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Aurang: It is persian term for a warehouse where goods are collected before being sold. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Banian: The word Bania (also Vania) is derived from the Sanskrit vanij, meaning ‘a merchant’. The term is widely used to identify members of the traditional mercantile or business castes of India. Banias were bankers, moneylenders, traders, and shopkeepers. During the British rule, Banians acted as intermediaries for European merchants in Bengal. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Mirasidar: Under the Ryotwari settlement system in Southern India, the East India Company recognized mirasidars as the sole proprietors of land, dismissing tenants’ rights completely. Mirasidars were prohibited by law from selling their land but it can be leased to tenants for a nominal fee in return for its cultivation. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

42. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Mahasanghika, means Great Congregation, was an early Buddhist school of thought which formed after the 2^nd Buddhist Council (383 BCE) when it separated itself from another school, the Sthaviravada (Sect of the Elders), over differences in monastic practices (known as Vinaya).
At the Council, Sthaviravada insisted on more rigorous rules of conduct for the monks, but their suggestions were rejected by the majority at the Council who then referred to themselves as the “Mahasanghikas”.
The Mahasanghikas’s views on the nature of the Buddha and the arhat (saint) acted as a precursor of Mahayana form of Buddhism. Hence, statement 1 is not correct, while statement 3 is correct.
Further subdivisions of the Mahasanghikas over the next seven centuries included the Lokottaravadins, the Ekavyavaharikas, and the Kaukkutikas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

43. Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?

(a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.

(b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers.

(d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures.

Explanation:

The Industrial Revolution brought severe consequences to the Indian society. One of the most important consequences of British Rule was the decline and destruction of urban and rural handicraft industries.
The discovery of steam power and its practice from the year 1815 created a threat to the Indian textile industry. The inventions of the spinning mule and power loom became more efficient and effective because of steam power. Consequently, it had greatly reduced the cost of British textile and made it internationally competitive.
To support British textile industry, heavy duties were imposed on the export of Indian textiles. Indian farmers were forced to produce cotton so that it can fuel English factories.
However, there were some positive effects of the Industrial Revolution also. For example,
- The introduction of factories and assembly lines,
- Electricity development,
- Railroads (First Railway in India: from Bombay to Thane in 1853)
All these things contributed to faster and more efficient production of goods and materials. But these developments took place mainly in the second half of the 19^th century.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

44. Consider the following events in the history of India:

Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I
Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I
Pala dynasty founded by Gopala

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?

(a) 2 – 1 – 4 - 3

(b) 3 – 1 – 4 - 2

(c) 2 – 4 – 1 - 3

(d) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

Explanation:

The Pallava dynasty existed from 275 CE to 897 CE, ruling a portion of southern India. Pallavas became a major power during the reign of Mahendravarman I (571–630 CE) who ruled the Southern portion of present day Andhra region and Northern regions of what forms present-day Tamil Nadu.
Pala dynasty reigned in Bihar and Bengal from the 8th to the 12^th century. Its founder, Gopala (750-770 CE), was a local chieftain who rose to power in the mid- eighth century during a period of anarchy.
From the middle of the eighth century the dominance over Madhyadesha became the ambition of two particular clans among tribal people in Rajasthan, known as the Gurjara and the Pratihara. According to a contemporary Arab account from 851 CE, Raja Mihir Bhoja (840–851 CE), the greatest of the Pratihara kings, was among the princes of India that battled against the Arab invaders.
The Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya. The reign of the Cholas began in the 9^th century when they defeated the Pallavas to come into power. The medieval period was the era of absolute power and development for the Cholas. Parantaka I (reigned 907–953) laid the foundation of the kingdom. He took the northern boundary up to Nellore (Andhra Pradesh), where his advance was stopped by a defeat at the hands of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III. Parantaka was more successful in the south, where he defeated both the Pandyas and the Gangas.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

45. Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates

(b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts

(c) A bill of exchange

(d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates

Explanation:

Hundika or Hundi was a bill of exchange developed as a financial system in Medieval India for use in trade and credit transactions.
It facilitated easy transmission of money from one part of the country to another.
By means of hundis, traders created credit which supplemented the money in circulation and financed commerce, particularly long-distance and international trade.
The sarrafs (shroffs) who specialized in changing money, also specialised in dealing with hundis.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

46. With reference to the book ‘Desher Katha’ written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

It warned against the Colonial State's hypnotic conquest of the mind.
It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (1869-1912), a close associate of Sri Aurobindo, published a book entitled ‘Desher Katha’ in 1904. The book described in exhaustive detail the British commercial and industrial exploitation of India. The government of Bengal banned the book in 1910 and confiscated all the copies.
This book had an immense repercussion in Bengal, captured the mind of young Bengal and assisted more than anything else in the preparation of the Swadeshi Movement. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
In his book, Deuskar uses ‘desh’ in the context of the whole country. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

47. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?

Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

The Delhi Pact (5 March 1931), also known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government.
Lord Irwin, the Viceroy and Governor-General of India (1926-1931), on behalf of the British government, agreed with Mahatma Gandhi on the following:
- immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence;
- remission of all fines not yet collected;
- return of all lands not yet sold to third parties;
- lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;
- right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale);
- right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and
- withdrawal of emergency ordinances.

Hence, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhiji’s demands:
- public inquiry into police excesses, and
- commutation of death sentence of Bhagat Singh and his comrades’ to life sentence.

Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress agreed:
- to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and
- to participate in the next Round Table Conference (the first round of conference was already conducted from November 1930 to January 1931) on the constitutional question around the three lynchpins of federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in India’s interests (covering such areas as defence, external affairs, position of minorities, financial credit of India and discharge of other obligations).

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

48. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by

(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar

(b) Jyotiba Phule

(d) Bhimrao Ranji Ambedkar

Explanation:

Gopal Baba Walangkar (1840-1900), also known as Gopal Krishna, was born into a family of the untouchable Mahar caste in Raigad district, Maharashtra.
He was the first to fight for the rights of the Mahars in Maharashtra.
He retired from military service in 1886 and mobilized people and made them conscious about their human rights.
In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

49. With reference to the history of India, the terms ‘kulyavapa’ and ‘dronavapa’ denote

(a) measurement of land

(b) coins of different monetary value

(d) religious rituals

Explanation:

In the Gupta era, the terms Kulyavapa, Dronavapa, and Adhavapa were related to land measurements mainly mentioned in the copper plate inscriptions that were found in Bengal.
These words indicate the area of land that was required to sow seed grains of the weight respectively of one kulya, drona and adhaka. The element “vapa” in the compound “kulyavapa”, derived from the root “vap”, means the act of the act of sowing (throwing or scattering).
The Midnapore plate of Subhakirtti refers to the gift of 40 dronas of land and one dronavapa of homestead land in the village Kumbharapadraka to a brahmin named Damyasvamin.
Dronavapa along with its other divisions and multiples such as adhavapa and kulyavapa were also used in the inscriptions of Bengal.
According to Sanskrit lexicons, a dronavapa was equivalent to one-eight of a kulyavapa and this is also corroborated by epigraphic evidence.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

50. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription?

“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”

(a) Ashoka

(b) Samundragupta

(d) Krishanadeva Raya

Explanation:

In his Edict XII, Ashoka condemns the practice of elevating one’s own religion at the expense of someone else’s:
- Growth in essentials can be done in different ways, but all of them have as their root restraint in speech, that is, not praising one’s own religion, or condemning the religion of others without good cause. And if there is cause for criticism, it should be done in a mild way. But it is better to honor other religions for this reason.
- By doing so, one’s own religion benefits and so do other religions, while doing otherwise harms one’s own religion and the religions of others.
- Whoever praises his own religion, due to excessive devotion, and condemns others with the thought ‘Let me glorify my own religion’, only harms his own religion. One should listen to and respect the doctrines professed by others.
The edict concludes with the admonition that an individual’s religion grows through Dhamma and so all faiths are improved by tolerance and understanding.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

51. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?

Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

The practice of supplying crops in the field with fertilizers via the irrigation water is called fertigation. It is a modern agro-technique that facilitates higher yield and reduced environmental pollution by increasing fertilizer use efficiency, minimizing fertilizer application and increasing return on the fertilizer invested.
The benefits of fertigation methods over conventional or drop-fertilizing methods include:
- Increased nutrient absorption by plants.
- Accurate placement of nutrient, where the water goes the nutrient goes as well.
- Ability to ‘microdose’, feeding the plants just enough so nutrients can be absorbed and are not left to be washed down to stormwater next time it rains.
- Reduction of fertilizer, chemicals, and water needed.
- Reduced leaching of chemicals into the water supply.
- Reduced water consumption due to the plant’s increased root mass’s ability to trap and hold water.
- Application of nutrients can be controlled at the precise time and rate necessary.
- Minimized risk of the roots contracting soil borne diseases through the contaminated soil.
- Reduction of soil erosion issues as the nutrients are pumped through the water drip system. Leaching is decreased often through methods used to employ fertigation.
- Through fertigation, pH of the irrigation water can be managed.
Fertigation method is not advisable in agriculture if the substance used can form precipitate and Phosphate may form precipitate in water having high Calcium and Magnesium content. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

52. Consider the following minerals:

Bentonite
Chromite
Kyanite
Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

According to the National Account Statistics (2007), minerals are broadly classified into major and minor minerals.
Major Minerals include the following:
- Fuel Minerals: Coal, Lignite, Natural Gas, Petroleum (Crude).
- Metallic Minerals: Bauxite, Chromite, Copper Ore, Gold, Iron Ore, Lead (Concentrates), Zinc (Concentrates), Manganese Ore, Silver, Tin (Concentrates), Tungsten (Concentrates).
- Non-Metallic Minerals: Agate, Andalusite, Apatite, Asbestos, Ball Clay, Barytes, Calcite, Chalk, Clay, Corundum, Calcarious sand, Diamond, Diaspore, Dolomite, Kyanite, Laterite, Limestone, Limestone Kankar, Lime Shell, Magnesite, Mica (crude), Ochre, Pyrites, Pyrophyllite, Phosphorite, Quartz, impure quartz, Quartzite, Fuchsite Quartzite, Silica Sand, Salt (Rock), Salt (Evaporated), Shale, Slate, Steatite, Sillimanite, Vermiculite, Wollastonite.
Minor Minerals include Bentonite, Boulder, Brick Earth, Building Stones, Chalcedony or Corundum, Fuller’s Earth, Gravel, Lime Stone, Dunite, Felspar, Fire Clay, Felsite, Flourite (Graded), Flourite (Concentrates), Gypsum, Garnet (Abrasives), Garnet (Gem), Graphite run-on-mines, Jasper, Kaolin, Marble, Murram, Ordinary Clay, Ordinary Sand, Ordinary Earth, Pebbles or Kankar, Quartzite and Sand stone, Road Metal, Salt Petre, Shale, Shingle, Slate.
Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are major minerals, whereas Bentonite is a minor mineral.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

53. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

OMT is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) have found that OMT has better ability to predict Indian summer monsoon than the Sea Surface Temperature (SST).
The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer and is largely influenced by strong winds, evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less.
The 26°C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50-100 metres. During January-March, the mean 26ºC isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
With OMT, in addition to better predictive success, the information on whether the amount of monsoon rainfall will be more or less than the long-term mean will be available by beginning of April, two months before the southwest monsoon can set in. This is because OMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy during the period from January to March. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

54. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:

At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture production. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Ammonia (NH₃) has been synthesized from natural gas. In this process, natural gas molecules are reduced to carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. This synthetic ammonia is used as fertilizer, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium phosphates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. This is typically done through hydrotreating and results in production of H₂S gas, which is converted into elemental sulfur. Sulfur can also be mined from underground, naturally-occurring deposits, but this is more costly than sourcing from oil and gas and has largely been discontinued. Sulfuric acid is used in the production of both Monoammonium Phosphate (MAP) and Diammonium Phosphate (DAP). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

55. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?

It is spread over two districts.
There is no human habitation inside the Park.
It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Desert National Park (DNP), an area of 3162 km², spreads over districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer in Rajasthan. The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of very low rainfall zone (<100 mm) of the country. DNB was demarcated and notified in 1980. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/ km². However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are around 70 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Thar desert harbours a wide array of flora and faunal species. It is the only place where Rajasthan State Bird (Great Indian Bustard) are found naturally. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

56. Siachen Glacier is situated to the

(a) East of Aksai Chin

(b) East of Leh

(d) North of Nubra Valley

Explanation:

The Siachen Glacier is located in the Eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, just northeast of Point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends.
It has the distinction of being the largest glacier outside the polar and subpolar regions.
It lies to the west of Aksai Chin, north of Nubra valley and almost east of Gilgit.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

57. With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

	Famous Place		Present State
1.	Bhilsa	—	Madhya Pradesh
2.	Dwarasamudra	—	Maharashtra
3.	Girinagar	—	Gujarat
4.	Sthanesvara	—	Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Vidisha (formerly known as Bhelsa and known as Besnagar in ancient times) is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is located around 60 km northeast of the state capital, Bhopal. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Halebidu, previously known as Dorasamudra or Dwarasamudra, the ancient Hoysala capital, houses the ornate Hoysaleswara and Kedareswara temples, and is one of the well-visited tourist attractions of Karnataka state. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Girnar, also known as Girinagar (city-on-the-hill) or Revatak Parvata, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat. This place is sacred to the Jains because it is the place where Lord Niminatha went to attain salvation. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Thanesar or Sthanesvara, a historical town, located adjacent to what is now newly created Kurukshetra city in Haryana. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

58. Consider the following statements:

36% of India’s districts are classified as ‘overexploited’ or ‘critical’ by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Based on groundwater levels, areas across the country are split into three categories: Over-exploited, Critical and Semi critical. The first refers to groundwater being extracted more than what’s recharged i.e. extraction is more than 100%. Critical where the groundwater taken out is 90-100% of what’s recharged and semi- critical where extraction rate is 70%-90%.
As per the report ‘National Compilation on Dynamic Groundwater Resources of India, 2017’ of CGWA, out of the total 6881 assessment units (Blocks/Mandals/ Talukas) in the country, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as ‘Over-Exploited’, 313 units (5%) are ‘Critical’, and 972 are semi-critical units (14%). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate, control development and management of ground water resources. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
As per report of Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of UN, the countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

59. Consider the following statements:

Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
Only some cyclones develop an eye.
The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10ºC lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing horizontally through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally from west to east, at an altitude of 20,000 - 50,000 feet. Jet Streams develop where air masses of different temperatures meet. So, usually surface temperatures determine where the Jet Stream will form. Greater the difference in temperature, faster is the wind velocity inside the jet stream. Jet Streams extend from 20° latitude to the poles in both hemispheres. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Cyclones are of two types, tropical cyclone and temperate cyclone. The center of a tropical cyclone is known as the ‘eye’, where the wind is calm at the center with no rainfall. However, in a temperate cyclone, there is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive, so the eye is not found. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The warmest temperatures are found in the eye itself, not in the eyewall clouds where the latent heat occurs. The air is saturated only where convective vertical motions pass through flight level. Inside the eye, the temperature is greater than 28°C and the dewpoint is less than 0°C. These warm and dry conditions are typical of the eyes of extremely intense tropical cyclones. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

60. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

(a) Corbett

(b) Ranthambore

(c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam

(d) Sundarbans

Explanation:

Critical Tiger Habitats (CTH), also known as core areas of tiger reserves, are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 based on scientific evidence that “such areas are required to be kept as inviolative for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers”.
The CTHs are notified by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.
Area of the core/critical tiger habitat:
- Corbett (Uttarakhand): 821.99 sq. kms
- Ranthambore (Rajasthan): 1113.36 sq. kms
- Sundarbans (West Bengal): 1699.62 sq. kms
- Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part of Andhra Pradesh): 2595.72 sq. kms

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

61. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.

(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.

(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Explanation:

The Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 is enacted for protection of plants and animal species. The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.
Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower.
Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.
The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting.
In Schedule VI, following plants are included:
- Beddomes’ cycad (Cycas beddomei),
- Blue Vanda (Vanda soerulec),
- Kuth (Saussurea lappa),
- Ladies slipper orchids (Paphiopedilum spp.),
- Pitcher plant (Nepenthes khasiana),
- Red Vanda (Rananthera imschootiana)
However, the further also states that cultivation of specified plants without licence is prohibited. As per Section 17C of the Act, no person shall cultivate a specified plant except under and in accordance with a licence granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

62. With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were known as

(a) ports handling foreign trade

(b) capitals of powerful kingdoms

(d) important of Buddhist pilgrimage centres

Explanation:

During the ancient period, India had trade and cultural contacts with Egypt, Rome, Greeks, Arabs, China and almost all Southeast Asian countries.
Both the coasts of India have been studded with a string of ports.
- The ports on the west coast were Barygaya, Suppara, Calliena, Semylla, Mandagore, Palaepatme, Malizigara, Aurranobbas, Naura, Tyndis, Muziris and Nelcynda.
- The ports on the east coast were Tamralipti, Charitrapur, Paluru, Dantapur, Kalingapatnam, Pithunda, Sopatma, Ghantasala, Kadura, Poduca, Puhar, Korkai and Camara.
Inshore explorations have been carried out at Malwan, Sopara, Elephanta island, Chaul, Udyavara, Honnavar, Gopakapatna on the west coast and Manikpatna, Kalingapatna, surrounding region of Poompuhar and Tranquebar on the east coast of India.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

63. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

Sowing of wheat without burning the residue of previous crop.
Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Zero Tillage, also called no-till farming, is a cultivation technique in which the soil is disturbed only along the slit or in the hole into which the seeds are planted, the reserved detritus from previous crops covers and protects the seedbed.
As per a study, it has been found that farmers in north India can not only help reduce air pollution but also improve the productivity of their soil and earn more profits if they stop burning their crop residue and instead adopt the concept of no-till farming.
Under zero tillage, the direct seeding of wheat into unploughed soil and with rice residues left behind has proved very beneficial. It saved on water, labour and use of agro-chemicals, reduced greenhouse gas emissions, and improved soil health and crop yield and thus benefitted both farmers and the society at large. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) is a viable option to reduce the unproductive water flows. DSR refers to the process of establishing a rice crop from seeds sown in the field rather than by transplanting seedlings from the nursery. Conventional rice establishment system requires a substantial amount of water. It has been reported that water up to 5000 litres is used to produce 1 kg of rough rice. However, with increasing shortage of water, dry-DSR with minimum or zero tillage further enhances the benefits of this technology by saving labour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
No tilled soils tend to be cooler than others, partly because a surface layer of plant residues is present. Carbon is sequestered in the soil enhancing its quality, reducing the threat of global warming. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

64. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

Cassava
Damaged wheat grains
Groundnut seeds
Horse gram
Rotten potatoes
Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation:

The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, allows production of ethanol from damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, etc., which are unfit for human consumption.
The Policy also allows conversion of surplus quantities of food grains to ethanol, based on the approval of the National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of sugarcane juice, sugar containing materials like sugar beet, sweet sorghum, starch containing materials like corn, cassava, damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, rotten potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

65. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?

It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.

(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.

(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

Explanation:

The social cost of carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
The SCC puts the effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers and other decision makers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions.
India’s country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated to be the highest at $86 per tonne of CO₂. It means the Indian economy will lose $86 by emitting each additional tonne of CO₂. India is followed by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

66. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:

Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In India, the important pulse crops grown in winter (rabi) are chickpea, lentil, lathyrus, field pea and kidney bean. However, green gram, black gram and cowpea are grown in both spring and rainy season.
Black gram is a warm weather crop and comes up in areas receiving an annual rainfall ranging from 600 to 1000 mm. It is mainly cultivated in a cereal-pulse cropping system primarily to conserve soil nutrients and utilize the left over soil moisture particularly, after rice cultivation. Hence, although it can be grown in all the seasons, the majority of black gram cultivation falls in either rabi or late rabi seasons particularly in peninsular India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics (DES), the share of pulse production in 2018- 19 was comprised of Tur (15.34%), Gram (43.29%), Moong (green gram,10.04%), Urad (black gram, 13.93%), Lentil (6.67%), and Other Pulses (10%). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
In the last three decades, both, the production of kharif pulses and the production of rabi pulses have increased. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

67. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop?

(a) Cotton

(b) Jute

(d) Tea

Explanation:

Cotton:
- Temperature: Between 21-30°C, 210 frost free days.
- Rainfall: Around 50-100 cm.
- Soil Type: Well-drained black cotton soil of Deccan Plateau.
Jute:
- Temperature: Between 15-34°C
- Rainfall: Around 100-250 cm.
- Soil Type: Jute can be raised on all kinds of soils from clay to sandy loam, but loamy alluvial are best suited.
Sugarcane:
- Temperature: Between 28-32°C
- Rainfall: Around 75-120 cm.
- Soil Type: Sugarcane can grow in a variety of soils including black cotton soils, loams, brown or reddish loams, clayey loams and even laterites.
Tea:
- Temperature: Between 20-30°C.
- Rainfall: Around 150-300 cm.
- Soil Type: Deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

68. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:

Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The main components in a solar pumping system include a photovoltaic (PV) array, an electric motor and a pump.
There are several different types of solar-powered pumps depending on their functional mechanism. But primarily there are four types of solar water pumps - submersible pumps, surface pumps, direct current (DC) pumps and alternate current (AC) pumps. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Solar Power can be used to run both centrifugal as well as piston pumps. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

69. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:

A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nurse, and transplanted in the main field.
When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Tissue culture technology:
- Tissue culture is a technique in which fragments of plants are cultured and grown in a laboratory.
- It provides a new way to rapidly produce and supply disease-free seed cane of existing commercial varieties.
- It uses meristem to clone the mother plant.
- It also preserves genetic identity.
- The tissue culture technique, owing to its cumbersome outfit and physical limitation, is turning out to be uneconomical.
Bud chip technology:
- As a viable alternative of tissue culture, it reduces the mass and enables quick multiplication of seeds.
- This method has proved to be more economical and convenient than the traditional method of planting two to three bud setts.
- The returns are relatively better, with substantial savings on the seed material used for planting.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The researchers have found that the setts having two buds are giving germination about 65 to 70% with better yield. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Large setts have better survival under bad weather but single budded setts also give 70% germination if protected with chemical treatment. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

70. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

Crop diversification
Legume intensification
Tensiometer use
Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Crop diversification: It refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value added crops with complementary marketing opportunities. Introducing a greater range of varieties also leads to diversification of agricultural production which can increase natural biodiversity. Further, the diversification of agriculture is an alternate way for the regeneration and conservation of land and water. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Legume intensification:
- A leguminous plant (legume) is a group of plants that have vegetables or as foods grown from the ground knobs that enhance the ability of nitrogen- rich material. Examples include acacia, peas, clover, beans etc.
- Legumes improve soil health, especially compared to fallow, by adding nitrogen and organic matter and reducing potential erosion and leaching loss. Legumes may reduce the energy footprint of cropping systems by reducing the need for nitrogen fertilizer, and improve the stability and health of agro-ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tensiometer: It literally means tension measurement. In order to absorb water from soil, the plant has to overcome the suction tension of the soil. This tension is measured by the tensiometer, thus giving indication of the soil moisture at the depth in which it was placed. Tensiometer helps farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water the soil. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Vertical farming: It is the practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers and often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

71. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment agriculture?

Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all corps
Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
Social Capital development
Free electricity supply to farmers
Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation:

Public investment is an investment by the State (Central, state and local governments or through publicly owned companies) to build the nation’s capital stock by devoting resources to the basic physical infrastructure (such as roads, bridges, rail lines, airports, and water distribution), innovative activity (basic research), green investments (clean power sources), and education that leads to higher productivity and/or higher living standards.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) provides a market intervention mechanism to work as an insurance policy for the farmers to save them from price falls. It is not helping in enhancing productivity in the agriculture sector. Thus, fixing the MSP for agricultural produce of all crops does not add to national capital stock or lead to higher productivity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies will enhance productivity in the agricultural sector, as there will be easy and timely access of credit. Similar will be the impact of setting up cold storage facilities. Hence, statements 2 and 6 are correct.
Social capital is the value that can be created through networking and trust built within and between people and organisations. Building cohesiveness within a community lowers the transaction costs of working together and enhanced trust can enable communities to overcome societal dilemmas. Strong social networks can serve as safety nets to help resource poor individuals or communities cope with shocks, especially when formal types of risk management such as credit or insurance are unavailable. Within farming communities, social capital can also improve productivity because it is a pre-requisite for the management of ‎natural resources or the adoption of new practices and technologies. Building social capital for smallholders can also positively impact the adoption of new technologies such as the use of improved seeds, soil and water conservation practices, and ‎agroforestry. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Free electricity to farmers has, apart from financial stress on the state, resulted in excessive use of water, encouragement of installation of more pump sets and depleting groundwater table. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Waiver of agricultural loans is not investment as it affects the health of the banking sector. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

72. What is the importance of the term "Interest Coverage Ratio" of a firm in India?

It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
The higher a borrowing firm's level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) is a debt ratio and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt. It measures how many times a company can cover its current interest payment with its available earnings. It may be calculated by dividing a company’s earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) during a given period by the company’s interest payments due within the same period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

ICR is commonly used by lenders, creditors, and investors to determine the company riskiness relative to its current debt or for future borrowing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The higher the interest coverage ratio the better. The lower the ratio, the more the company is burdened by debt expense. When a company’s interest coverage ratio is only 1.5 or lower, its ability to meet interest expenses may be questionable. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

73. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

Minimum Support Price
Government's trading
Government's stockpiling
Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a floor price decided by the government at which it procures crops from farmers. MSP’s aim is to protect farmers against the sharp decline in the agricultural prices during good harvest seasons. However, the MSP fixed on any crop attracts farmers to produce that specific crop which may lead to its over-production. MSP also distorts the market because the government procurement agencies buy 70-80% rice by forcing out private players. If the government sets MSP higher than the market rates, then private players won’t buy crops from farmers and the crops are procured by the government. Which creates inefficiencies in the markets. The farmers usually do not prefer producing other crops on which there is no fixed MSP eventually leading to price rise of those crops. Hence, factor/ policy 1 is correct.
Government in India typically buys more than a third of the country’s rice output at a fixed price, which has a direct impact on price of rice. Hence, factor/policy 2 is correct.
In India, the government stockpiles cereals like wheat and rice for distribution to poor which impacts the price of rice. The government sells the procured crops through the Public Distribution System at subsidised rates. Hence, factor/policy 3 is correct.
A subsidy means the government pays part of the cost. It can be provided both to the producer as well as the consumer. In India, subsidized food grains are distributed through TPDS which impacts the price of food grains sold through Fair Price Shops. Hence, factor/policy 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

74. Consider the following statements:

The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
“Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

As per data from the Department of Commerce, Indo- Sri Lanka bilateral trade value for a decade (2007 to 2016) was 3.0, 3.4, 2.1, 3.8, 5.2, 4.5, 5.3, 7.0, 6.3, 4.8 (in billion USD). It reflects continuous fluctuation in the trend of trade value. There has been an overall increase but the same cannot be said as consistent rise in trade value. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Bangladesh has been a major textile trading partner for India, with a share of more than 5% in exports and over 7% in imports. While annual textile exports to Bangladesh averages $2,000 million, imports are worth $400 (Year: 2016-17).
The major items of exports are fibre and yarn of cotton, man-made staple fibres and man-made filaments while major import items include apparel and clothing, fabric and other made up textile articles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
According to the data, in 2016-17, Bangladesh is India’s largest trading partner in South Asia, followed by Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Bhutan, Afghanistan and Maldives. The level of Indian exports also follows the same order. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

75. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?

(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Explanation:

The G20 is an informal group of 19 countries and the European Union, with representatives of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
In order to achieve a robust global economic growth, the member countries which represent and contribute more than 80% of the global GDP came at the premier forum for international economic cooperation, which was agreed by leaders at the Pittsburgh Summit in Pennsylvania (USA) in September 2009.
The G20 members include Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Republic of Korea , Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States and the European Union (EU).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

76. Under the Kisan credit card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?

Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks
Consumption requirements of farm households
Post-harvest expenses
Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs like purchase of agriculture inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for their production needs.
The scheme was further extended in the year 2004 for the investment credit requirement of farmers viz allied and non-farm activities.
Kisan Credit Card is provided with the following objectives:
- The short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
- Post harvest expenses
- Produce marketing loan
- Consumption requirements of farmer household
- Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery, etc.
- Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pumpsets, sprayers, dairy animals, etc.
The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

77. Consider the following statements:

The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the average change in the prices of goods in the wholesale market or at the wholesale level. It is published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the measure of changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services bought by households. There are four types of CPI based on items basket:
- CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
- CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL)
- CPI for Rural Labourer (RL)
- CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined)
Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Weightage of items in CPI is based on average household expenditure taken from consumer expenditure surveys. The weightage of food in CPI is far higher (approx. 46%) than in WPI (approx. 24%). A significant proportion of WPI items basket represents manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, basic metals, machinery etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Moreover, WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
WPI is used as a key measure of inflation in some economies. However, the RBI no longer uses it for policy purposes, including setting repo rates. In April 2014, the RBI adopted the CPI or retail inflation as a key measure of inflation to set the monetary and credit policy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

78. Consider the following pairs

	River		Flows into
1.	Mekong	—	Andaman Sea
2.	Thames	—	Irish Sea
3.	Volga	—	Caspian Sea
4.	Zambezi	—	Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Mekong River, originating in the icy headwaters of the Tibetan highlands, flows through the steep canyons of China, known as the upper basin, through lower basin countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia, before fanning an expansive delta in Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
River Thames, the longest river in England, flows 215 miles from the Cotswolds to the North Sea. The main tributaries of Thames are Buscot, Reading, and Kingston. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The Volga River, the longest river in Europe, runs through Russia with its delta flowing into the Caspian Sea just south of the Kazakhstan border. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
The Zambezi is the fourth-largest river after the Congo/Zaire, Nile and Niger in Africa. It rises in the Kalene hills in north-western Zambia and flows eastwards for about 3000 km to the Indian Ocean. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

Therefore, the option (c) is the correct answer.

79. Consider the following statements:

In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The Government of India announces Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 22 major agricultural commodities each year in both the crop seasons after taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
CACP recommends MSP for twenty two (22) crops and Fair & Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.
- 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi),
- 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil),
- 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and
- 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
The Department of Food & Public Distribution declares Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP) for sugar.
The overall procurement quantity should not normally exceed 25% of the actual production of the commodity for that particular year/season. Over and above the procurement limit of 25%, if any, prior approval of the Department of Agriculture (DAC) shall be required. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The MSP is fixed by the Central government, based on the average of MSP proposals made by various states, some of which can be higher than the Centre’s recommendation.
While the proposals based on input costs vary from state to state, the MSP is fixed to avoid price inequity. When the market prices dip to a level that is below the MSP, the government agencies buy over the produce in order to protect the farmers. Thus market prices can rise above MSP. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

80. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
‘Call Money' is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note and held in a dematerialized form through any of the depositories approved by and registered with SEBI. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable money market instrument and issued in dematerialised form or as a Usance Promissory Note, for funds deposited at a bank or other eligible financial institution for a specified time period. CDs can be issued by (i) scheduled commercial banks excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Local Area Banks (LABs); and (ii) select all-India Financial Institutions (FIs) that have been permitted by RBI to raise short-term resources within the umbrella limit fixed by RBI. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Call money is a short-term, interest-paying loan from 1 to 14 days made by a financial institution to another financial institution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

81. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

(a) It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.

(b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.

(d) It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.

Explanation:

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment through capital instruments by a person resident outside India in:
- An unlisted Indian company; or
- 10% or more of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company.
Therefore, FDI can be in a listed or unlisted company. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
The capital invested in India via FDI is non debt creating and not allowed to serve debt. Hence, option (b) is correct and (c) is not correct.
An investment is called Foreign Portfolio Investment, if the investment made by a person (or institutional investors) resident outside India in capital instruments is:
- less than 10% of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company, or
- less than 10% of the paid up value of each series of capital instruments of a listed Indian company.

Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

82. With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

India's merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
India's imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
India's exports of services are more than its imports of services.
India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

As of August 2020, India’s merchandise exports were USD 22.70 billion and merchandise imports were USD 29.47 billion which clearly means that merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
As per the Economic Survey 2020, India’s imports of iron and steel have decreased but imports of chemicals, fertilizers and machinery have increased. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
As of April-August 2020-21, the service exports are estimated at USD 84.47 billion as compared to the estimated service imports of USD 49.56 billion. This means, India’s exports of services are more than its import of services. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Trade deficit is a situation when the exports of goods is less than its imports whereas the current account deficit is a situation when the overall trade in goods and services is on the negative side (i.e. country imported more than it exported). As of now, India’s exports of goods are less than its imports but the exports of services is more than its imports. Moreover, the overall trade balance is negative because of high trade deficit. Therefore, India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

83. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

(a) Crude oil

(b) Bullion

(d) Uranium

Explanation:

West Texas intermediate (WTI), also known as Texas light sweet, is a grade of crude oil used as a benchmark in oil pricing.
- WTI is described as light crude oil because of its relatively low density, and sweet because of its low sulfur content.
- It is sourced from US oil fields, primarily in Texas, Louisiana, and North Dakota.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

84. In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?

Housing loans owed by households
Amounts outstanding on credit cards
Treasury bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Debts are contractual obligations to repay monetary loans, often with related interest expenses.
Non-financial debt:
- It consists of credit instruments issued by governmental entities, households and businesses that are not included in the financial sector.
- It includes industrial or commercial loans, Treasury bills and credit card balances.
- They share most of the same characteristics with financial debt, except the issuers are non-financial.

Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

85. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under "IAEA safeguards" while others are not ?

(a) Some use uranium and others use thorium

(b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies

(d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned

Explanation:

The nuclear facilities are kept under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards if the source of Uranium which is the fissile material for a nuclear reactor is from outside the territory of India or if the new reactor plants are established with foreign collaboration.
This is to ensure that imported uranium was not diverted for military use and assure that the imported uranium is used to generate nuclear energy for civilian purposes.
There are at present 22 operational reactors, of which 14 are under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards as these use imported fuel.
Under safeguards agreement, the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has the right and obligation to ensure that safeguards are applied on all nuclear material in the territory, jurisdiction or control of the State for the exclusive purpose.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

86. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Under the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) of the World Trade Organization (WTO), commonly known as the TRIMS Agreement (negotiated during the Uruguay Round 1986-1994), WTO members have agreed not to apply certain investment measures that discriminate against foreign goods that restrict or distort trade (national treatment under GATT Article III) or leads to quantitative restrictions (Article XI), both of which violate basic WTO principles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
This agreement applies only to measures that affect trade in goods. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The Agreement is not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. The disciplines of the TRIMS Agreement focus on investment measures that infringe GATT Articles III and XI. In other words, it focusses on investment measures that discriminate between imported and exported products. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

87. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Expansionary monetary policy, or easy monetary policy, is when a central bank uses its tools to stimulate the economy. It increases the money supply, lowers interest rates, and increases demand. It boosts economic growth.
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a monetary policy tool that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses to assess the liquidity at the banks’ disposal. It is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of cash, gold or other securities. It is basically the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep before offering credit to customers. Raising SLR makes banks park more money in government securities and reduce the level of cash in the economy. Doing the opposite helps maintain cash flow in the economy. Reducing SLR leaves more liquidity with banks, which in turn can fuel growth and demand in the economy. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for scheduled banks to borrow overnight from the RBI in an emergency situation when interbank liquidity dries up completely. With the increase of MSF Rate, cost of borrowing increases for banks resulting in reduced available resources to lend. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Repo Rate, or repurchase rate, is the key monetary policy rate of interest at which the central bank or the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short term money to banks, against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF). Bank Rate is the interest rate which the RBI charges on its long-term lendings. Under expansionary monetary policy, RBI reduces repo rate and bank rate to increase liquidity in the banking sector. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

88. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at 2004 — 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

A 2017 NITI Aayog Report, “Changing Structure of Rural Economy of India Implications for Employment and Growth”, provides the following information regarding the rural economy.
Worker productivity has increased for both rural and urban areas. For rural areas it was ?37273 in 2004-05 and ?101755 in 2011-12, while for urban areas it was ?120419 in 2004-05 and ?282515 in 2011-12. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The rural share in the total workforce declined steadily from 76.1% in 1999-2000 to 70.9% in 2011-12. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
One of the significant changes in the rural production structure is the growing share of the non-farm sector, which increased from 37% in 1980-81 to 65% in 2009-10, and thus shows that in terms of value of production, rural is no longer merely agricultural. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Rural employment showed 2.16% annual growth rate during the pre-reform period, which decelerated in the post-reform period to 1.45% and turned negative (–0.28%) in the period of economic acceleration. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

89. Consider the following statements:

In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Cooperative bank is an institution established on the cooperative basis and dealing in ordinary banking business.
In rural India, there exists a 3-tier rural cooperative structure.
- Tier-I: It includes state cooperative banks (StCBs) at the state level;
- Tier-II: It includes central cooperative banks (CCBs) at the district level; and
- Tier- III: It includes primary agricultural credit societies (PACSs).
According to a report of the RBI, in 2016-17, scheduled commercial banks contributed the major share (78- 80%) in agricultural and allied credit. Cooperative institutions also play a significant role in extending agricultural credit and the share of all cooperative banks/institutions (i.e. StCBs, DCCBs and PACSs put together) constituted 15-16%. The RRBs contributed the remaining 5% of the agricultural credit. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The most significant function of the district central cooperative bank is to provide financial support to the primary cooperative societies that are affiliated to it in the district. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

90. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?

Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer
Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Cyber Insurance is designed to guard businesses from the potential effects of cyber-attacks. It helps an organisation mitigate risk exposure by offsetting costs, after a cyber-attack/breach has happened. In simple terms, cyber insurance is designed to cover the fees, expenses and legal costs associated with cyber breaches.
Coverage includes:
- Response to breach events (notification, call centre service, breach resolution, mitigation services, public relation and crisis management).
- Investigation & fines including lawyers, professional fees, administration cost etc.
- Expenses such as forensic, IT audit, crisis management, legal costs.
- Privacy & data liability
- Loss of personal identifiable information.
- Loss of corporate confidential info.
- Network liability such as DDoS Attacks.
- Multimedia covers including copyright issues.
- Business Interpretation
- Income loss, business interruption cost, system damage and restoration cost, any extra expenses.
- Cyber theft
- Fund transfer frauds
- E-theft loss
- E-communication loss
- Cyber extortion
Hence, benefits mentioned 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

91. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs:

1.	Parivrajaka	—	Renunciant and Wanderer
2.	Shramana	—	Priest with a high status
3.	Upasaka	—	Lay follower of Buddhism

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Travelling mendicants were usually called Parivrajaka. They were seekers of truth who did not live permanently at any one place, wandering from place to place. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Shramana in sanskrit means “the one who strives” i.e. to realize the truth. Shramanas practiced an ascetic, or strict and self-denying, lifestyle in pursuit of spiritual liberation. They were commonly known as monks. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Up?saka is the Sanskrit and P?li word for “attendant”. This is the title of followers of Buddhism (or, historically, of Gautama Buddha) who are not monks, nuns, or novice monastics in a Buddhist order, and who undertake certain vows. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

92. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

The leader of an elephant group is a female.
The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member (known as the matriarch). This herd includes the daughters of the matriarch and their offspring. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Elephants have the longest-known gestational (pregnancy) period of all mammals, lasting up to 680 days (22 months). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Females between 14 - 45 years may give birth to calves approximately every four years with the mean interbirth intervals increasing to five years by age 52 and six years by age 60. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
As per Elephant Census (2017), Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

93. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

Nagarhole National Park
Papikonda National Park
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Nagarhole National Park:
- This park is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park. It is located in the two districts of Karnataka, namely Mysore and Kodagu.
- The park was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955 and was upgraded into a national park in 1988.
- The park was declared as the 37th Tiger reserve in 1999.
- Kabini, a tributary of the Cauvery River, is the largest river draining the park.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Papikonda National Park:
- This park is spread over 1012.86 square kilometres in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh.
- It has historically experienced varying levels of protection, beginning as a reserve forest in 1882, a wildlife sanctuary in 1978, and as a national park from 2008.
- The park lies along the left and right banks of the river Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats.

Hence, option 2 is not correct.

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve:
- Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and tiger reserve along the Western Ghats in the Erode district of the state of Tamil Nadu.
- In the northern part of Erode district, Palar river flows and drains into Cauvery river.

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Located in Kerala, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It was established in 1973.
- It is contiguous to the tiger reserves of Nagerhole and Bandipur of Karnataka and Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
- Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

94. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart are

(a) Birds

(b) Primates

(d) Amphibians

Explanation:

These all are part of the Avian ecology.
Ceylon frogmouth:
- It is a grey-brown nocturnal bird species that is found in the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka’s forested habitats.
- It is distinguished by its wide, hooked bill with slit-like nostrils and a large head with eyes facing forward.
- With destruction of forest cover, this species is likely compelled to now take refuge in cashew plantations.
Coppersmith barbet:
- Also called crimson-breasted barbet and coppersmith, it is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer.
- It is a resident bird in the Indian subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia.
White-throated Redstart:
- It is a species of bird in the Muscicapidae family.
- It is found in Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal.
Grey-Chinned Minivet:
- It is a species of bird in the Campephagidae family.
- It is found in Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Taiwan, Thailand and Vietnam.
- Its natural habitat is subtropical or tropical moist lowland forests.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

95. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

(a) Kanha National Park

(b) Manas National Park

(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation:

Hard ground swamp deer or Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii), the state animal of Madhya Pradesh, is seeing a revival in the Kanha National Park and Tiger Reserve (KNPTR).
Swamp Deer was close to extinction in the Kanha National Park. However, with the conservation efforts, the population currently numbers around 800.
The deer is endemic to the Kanha National Park and Tiger Reserve on the Maikal Range of Satpura Hills. Measures like captive breeding and habitat improvement were used.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

96. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

Construction of base road
Improvement of agricultural soil
Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Steel slag is a by-product of the steel making process. It is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. The slag occurs as a molten liquid and is a complex solution of silicates and oxides that solidifies upon cooling.
Steel slag is used as a base course material, the material under the surface layer of an asphalt road, track or surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Steel slag can be used in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the plants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Steel-slag can be used to produce cement. Further, slag cement is most widely used in concrete, either as a separate cementitious component or as part of a blended cement. It works synergistically with portland cement to increase strength, reduce permeability, improve resistance to chemical attack and inhibit rebar corrosion. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

97. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
Gangotri National Park
Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Musk deer live mainly in forested and alpine scrub habitats in the mountains of southern Asia, notably the Himalayas.
Askot Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is located 54 km from Pithoragarh, near Askot in Uttarakhand state of India.
- This sanctuary has been set up primarily with the object of conserving the musk deer and its habitat. Hence, 1 is correct.
Gangotri National Park:
- Established in 1989, it is located in the upper catchment of Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand.
- The park is home to blue sheep, Himalayan Tahr, musk deer, snow leopard etc. Hence, 2 is correct.
Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh. It was founded in 1972.
- In this sanctuary, tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters, and many more animals find themselves a home.
- A huge number of resident and migratory birds like falcons, drongos, owls, egrets, and peacocks can be spotted in the open meadows, which is traversed by perennial streams. Hence, 3 is not correct.
Manas National Park:
- Manas National Park is located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
- It is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog.
- Manas is famous for its population of the wild water buffalo. Hence, 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

98. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

Copper slag
Cold mix asphalt technology
Geotextiles
Hot mix asphalt technology
Portland cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 5 only

Explanation:

Copper slag is a by-product obtained during smelting and refining of copper. The waste copper slag can be used as abrasive tools, road construction, and ballast. The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential environmental as well as economic benefits for all related industries, particularly in areas where a considerable amount of copper slag is produced. Hence, 1 is correct.
Cold mix asphalt is produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. Cold asphalt mixes are typically suitable for light to medium trafficked roads when used in base and surface courses. Hence, 2 is correct.
Geotextile is a synthetic permeable textile material used to improve the soil characteristics and has the ability to separate, filter, reinforce, protect and drain when used in association with soils. It is mostly used for filtration and separation in the road constructions. Hence, 3 is correct.
Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix technology leads to environmental pollution as these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse gases. Hence, 4 is not correct.
Portland cement is a binding material in the formof a finely ground powder, that is manufactured by burning and grinding a mixture of limestone and clay. Its production generates greenhouse gases. Hence, 5 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

99. Consider the following statements:

Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Coal ash, also referred to as coal combustion residuals or CCRs, is produced primarily from the burning of coal in coal-fired power plants. It contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium and arsenic. Without proper management, these contaminants can pollute waterways, ground water, drinking water, and the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Coal based thermal power plants are major source of Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides emissions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
According to Coal India Limited, the ash content of coal produced in the country is generally 25 to 45% whereas average ash content of imported coal varies from 10 to 20%. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

100. What is the use of biochar in farming?

Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Biochar is a porous carbonaceous solid produced by heating various biomass feedstocks under high temperatures in an oxygen-limited environment.
As biochar migrates vertically through the soil profile, therefore can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Due to its adsorption ability, some biochars have the potential to immobilise heavy metals, pesticides, herbicides, and hormones; prevent nitrate leaching and faecal bacteria into waterways; and reduce N²O and CH₄ emissions from soils. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Biochar can help retain water and nutrients in the soil for the plants to take up as they grow. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Print PDF Print This Article

Prev Next

Achievers Corner

Prelims

Mains & Interview

Current Affairs

Drishti Specials

Study Material

State PCS

Test Series

Videos

Prelims Analysis

Prelims Analysis

2020 Prelims Analysis