Karol Bagh | IAS GS Foundation Course | date 26 November | 6 PM Call Us
This just in:
UPSC CSE Prelims Test Series 2025 PCS Parikshan 2024UPSC Calendar 2025
Language: ENहिंदी
Search
RSS
Cart
Classroom

Achievers Corner

Prelims

Mains & Interview

Current Affairs

Drishti Specials

Study Material

State PCS

Test Series

Videos

    

Drishti Store

  • 03 Nov 2022
  • 50 min read
Infographics

Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme

Read more...

Agriculture

Nutrient Based Subsidy Rates Approved

For Prelims: Nutrient Based Subsidy, P&K fertilizers, Urea

For Mains: NBS Regime and the Related Issues.

Why in News?

Recently, the Union Cabinet approved Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) rates for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilisers for Rabi season 2022-23 from 1st October, 2022 to 31st March, 2023.

  • All Non-Urea based fertilisers are regulated under NBS Scheme.

What is NBS Regime?

  • Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers.
  • Also, the fertilizers which are fortified with secondary and micronutrients such as molybdenum (Mo) and zinc are given additional subsidy.
  • The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the Government on an annual basis for each nutrient on a per kg basis – which are determined taking into account the international and domestic prices of P&K fertilizers, exchange rate, inventory level in the country etc.
  • NBS policy intends to increase the consumption of P&K fertilizers so that optimum balance (N:P:K= 4:2:1) of NPK fertilization is achieved.
    • This would improve soil health and as a result the yield from the crops would increase, resulting in enhanced income to the farmers.
    • Also, as the government expects rational use of fertilizers, this would also ease off the burden of fertilizer subsidy.
  • It is being implemented from April 2010 by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.

What are the Issues Related with NBS?

  • Imbalance in Price of Fertilisers:
    • Urea is left-out in the scheme and hence it remains under price control as NBS has been implemented only in other fertilizers. The MRP of urea is today officially fixed at Rs 5,628 per tonne. There is technically no price control in other fertilisers. The prices of the other fertilizers which were decontrolled have gone up that has led the farmers to use more urea than before. This has further worsened fertilizer imbalance.
  • Costs on Economy and Environment:
    • Fertilizer subsidy is the second-biggest subsidy after food subsidy, the NBS policy is not only damaging the fiscal health of the economy but also proving detrimental to the soil health of the country.
  • Black Marketing:
    • Subsidised urea is getting diverted to bulk buyers/traders or even non-agricultural users such as plywood and animal feed makers.
      • It is being smuggled to neighbouring countries like Bangladesh and Nepal.

Way Forward

  • In order to address the imbalance in the fertilizer use, urea has to come under NBS.
    • A feasible way to do it is by hiking urea prices and simultaneously reducing the NBS rates of phosphorus, potash and sulphur to make other fertilisers cheaper.
  • Considering that all three nutrients namely N (nitrogen), P (phosphorus) and K (potassium) are critical to increasing crop yields and quality of produce, the government must necessarily go for a uniform policy for all fertilisers.
  • In the long run, NBS itself should be replaced by a flat per-acre cash subsidy that could be used to purchase any fertiliser.
    • This subsidy must include value-added and customised products containing not just other nutrients, but delivering even nitrogen more efficiently than urea.

 Infographics 

UPSC Civil Services Examination, Previous Year Question

Q. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements: (2020)

  1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
  2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
  3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp:

  • The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture production. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Ammonia (NH3) has been synthesized from natural gas. In this process, natural gas molecules are reduced to carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. This synthetic ammonia is used as fertilizer, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium phosphates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. This is done through hydrotreating and results in production of H2S gas, which is converted into elemental sulfur. Sulfur can also be mined from underground, naturally-occurring deposits, but this is more costly than sourcing from oil and gas and has largely been discontinued. Sulfuric acid is used in the production of both Monoammonium Phosphate (MAP) and Diammonium Phosphate (DAP). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Source: PIB

Governance

Two-Finger Test

For Prelims: Supreme Court, World Health Organization

For Mains: Regressive laws for rape victims

Why in News?

Recently, the Supreme Court has said that those conducting the ‘two-finger test’ on alleged rape victims will be held guilty of misconduct.

What is the Two-Finger Test?

  • About:
    • The two-finger test, carried out by a medical practitioner, involves the examination of her vagina to check if she is habituated to sexual intercourse.
      • The practice is unscientific and does not provide any definite information. Moreover, such ‘information’ has no bearing on an allegation of rape.
    • A woman who has been sexually assaulted undergoes a medical examination for ascertaining her health and medical needs, collection of evidence, etc.
    • A handbook released by the World Health Organization (WHO) on dealing with sexual assault victims says, “There is no place for virginity (or ‘two-finger’) testing; it has no scientific validity.”
  • Supreme Court’s Observation:
    • In May 2013, the apex court had held that the two-finger test violates a woman’s right to privacy and asked the government to provide better medical procedures to confirm sexual assault.
    • Invoking the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights 1966 and the UN Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power 1985, the apex court said rape survivors are entitled to legal recourse that does not re-traumatise them or violate their physical or mental integrity and dignity.
    • In April 2022, the Madras High Court directed the state to ban the two-finger test.
    • In State of Jharkhand Vs. Shailendra Kumar Case, 2022, a bench of Supreme Court stated that “whether a woman is ‘habituated to sexual intercourse’ or ‘habitual to sexual intercourse’ is irrelevant for the purposes of determining whether the ingredients of Section 375 (rape) of the IPC are present in a particular case.
      • Supreme Court in this case reiterated the ban on the two-finger test.
    • The court stated that it is patriarchal and sexist to suggest that a woman cannot be believed when she states that she was raped, merely for the reason that she is sexually active.

What the Government’s Guidelines say?

  • After the 2013 Justice Verma Committee report on amendments to criminal law for a faster trial, and enhanced punishment in sexual assault cases, the Union Health Ministry brought out detailed guidelines for the medical examination of victims of sexual assault in early 2014.
  • According to the guidelines ‘two-finger test’, must not be conducted for establishing rape/sexual violence.
  • The guidelines state that a rape victim’s consent (or her guardian’s, if she is minor/mentally disabled) is necessary for any medical examination. Even if the consent is not provided, the victim cannot be denied medical treatment.
  • However, these are guidelines and are not legally binding.

Way Forward

  • The guidelines issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare should be circulated to private and government hospitals.
  • Workshops should be held for health providers to prevent the test from being conducted on rape survivors.
  • The issue can be addressed by widespread sensitization and training of both doctors and police personnel.

UPSC Civil Services Examination, Previous Year Question

Q. We are witnessing increasing instances of sexual violence against women in the country. Despite existing legal provisions against it, the number of such incidences is on the rise. Suggest some innovative measures to tackle this menace. (2014)

Source: IE

Indian Polity

Voting Rights for Under trial Prisoners

For Prelims: Provisions related to Prisoners’ right to Vote, NCRB, Article 14 (right to equality).

For Mains: Voting Rights for Under trial Prisoners.

Why in News?

Recently, the Supreme Court has decided to examine a petition challenging a provision in the election law that imposes a blanket ban on under trials, persons confined in civil prisons and convicts serving their sentence in jails from casting their votes.

What are the Associated Implications?

  • Disenfranchises a Large Segment of the Population:
    • The latest National Crime Reports Bureau (NCRB) report of 2021 shows that a total of 5,54,034 prisoners were confined as on 31th December, 2021 in various jails across the country.
    • The number of convicts, undertrial inmates and detenues were reported as 1,22,852, 4,27,165 and 3,470, respectively, accounting for 22.2%, 77.1% and 0.6% respectively at the end of 2021.
    • There was a hike of 14.9% in the number of undertrial prisoners from 2020 to 2021.
  • Undermine Respect for Law and Democracy:
    • Denying penitentiary (a prison) inmates the right to vote is more likely to send messages that undermine respect for the law and democracy than messages that enhance those values.
  • Deprive from Right:
    • Denying the right to vote does not comply with the requirements for legitimate punishment.
    • If a convicted person can vote if she is out on bail, why is the same right denied to an under trial who is not yet found guilty of a crime by a court of law.
    • Even a judgment-debtor (a person who has not paid his debt despite a court verdict) who has been arrested and detained as a civil person is deprived of her right to vote. Detainment in civil prisons is unlike imprisonment for crimes.
  • Lacks Reasonable Classification:
    • The ban lacks reasonable classification based on the nature of the crime or duration of the sentence imposed unlike in countries like South Africa, United Kingdom, France, Germany, Greece, Canada, etc.
    • This lack of classification is anathema to the fundamental right to equality under Article 14 (right to equality).

What are the Provisions related to Prisoners’ right to cast their vote?

  • The right to vote is a constitutional right under Article 326 of the Constitution.
  • Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals in the lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote. Undertrial prisoners are also excluded from participating in elections even if their names are on the electoral rolls.
  • Only those under preventive detention can cast their vote through postal ballots.

UPSC Civil Services Examination, Previous Year Question

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
  2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans: (b)
Exp:

  • Parole can be looked at from the perspective of a privilege for prisoners who seem to be capable of reintegrating into society.
  • Although some criminal statutes carry a right to an eventual parole hearing, typical laws do not absolutely guarantee parole itself. Authorities retain the discretion to deny parole to prisoners they deem dangerous. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The grant of parole is governed by rules made under Prison Act, 1894 and Prison Act, 1900. Many State governments have also formulated guidelines to facilitate decision-making to determine whether parole needs to be granted in a particular case or not. For example, the Rajasthan Prisoners Release on Parole Rules, 1958. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Source: TH

Indian Economy

India’s First Floating Financial Literacy Camp

For Prelims: Niveshak Didi Initiative, India Post Payments Bank, Floating Financial Literacy Camp

For Mains: Financial Inclusion, Initiatives for Financial Inclusion, India Post Payments Bank

Why in News?

Recently, India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) conducted India’s First Floating Financial Literacy Camp with an initiative called ‘Niveshak Didi’ to promote Financial Literacy ‘By the women, for the women’, in Srinagar, J&K.

What is the Niveshak Didi Initiative?

  • About:
    • It is based on the ideology of women for women, as rural area women feel more comfortable to share their queries with a female herself.
  • Implementing Agency:
    • It is launched by IPPB, in collaboration with Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) under the aegis of Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
  • Floating Financial Literacy Camp:
    • The session covered topics ranging from banking and financial products, importance of joining the mainstream financial services offered by regulated entities & protection against various types of risks involved with investments and measures of fraud prevention.

What are India’s other Initiatives for Financial Literacy?

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana:
  • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana:
  • Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana:
    • PMKMDY was started to provide social security to all landholding Small and Marginal Farmers (farmers whose land holdings are less than two hectares of land in the country).
    • It is a voluntary and contribution-based pension scheme.
    • Pension will be paid to the farmers from a Pension Fund managed by the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
    • Farmers will have to contribute an amount between Rs.55 to Rs.200 per month in the Pension Fund till they reach the retirement date i.e., the age of 60 years.
  • Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana:
    • The PMMY is a scheme launched in 2015 for providing loans up to 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
    • These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY.
    • These loans are given by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, Cooperative Banks, MFIs and NBFCs.

What is India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)? 

  • About:

    • It has been established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communication with 100% equity owned by the Government of India.

  • Objective:

    • The bank has been set up with the vision to build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the common man in India.

  • The fundamental mandate of IPPB is to remove barriers for the unbanked and under-banked and reach the last mile leveraging a network comprising 160,000 post offices (145,000 in rural areas) and 400,000 postal employees.

  • IPPB’s reach and its operating model is built on the key pillars of India Stack - enabling Paperless, Cashless and Presence-less banking in a simple and secure manner at the customers' doorstep, through a CBS-integrated smartphone and biometric device.

  • IPPB is committed to provide a fillip to a less cash economy and contribute to the vision of Digital India.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question:

Prelims

Q. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016)

(a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system
(b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops
(c) providing pensions to old and destitute persons
(d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation
Ans: (a)
Exp:

  • Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a scheme launched by the GoI in 2015 for providing loans upto `10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
  • These loans are given by Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, Cooperative Banks, Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) and Non Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). Thus, it aims at bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system.
  • Under the aegis of PMMY, MUDRA has created thre products, namely ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishore’ and ‘Tarun’ to signify the stage of growth/development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit/ entrepreneur and also provide a reference point for the next phase of graduation/growth.
    • Shishu: loans upto 50,000;
    • Kishor: loans above 50,000 and upto 5 lakh;
    • Tarun: loans above 5 lakh and upto 10 lakh.
  • The funding support from MUDRA are of four types:
    • Micro Credit Scheme (MCS) for loans upto 1 lakh finance through MFIs;
    • Refinance Scheme for Commercial Banks/ Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)/Scheduled Cooperative Banks;
    • Women Enterprise programme;
    • Securitization of loan portfolio.
  • Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Mains

Q. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is necessary for bringing unbanked to the institutional finance fold. Do you agree with this for financial inclusion of the poorer section of the Indian society? Give arguments to justify your opinion. (2016)

Q. Is inclusive growth possible under market economy? State the significance of financial inclusion in achieving economic growth in India. (2022)

Source: PIB

Governance

C-295 Aircraft

For Prelims: Potential of India’s Civil Aviation Sector, MSME, Offset Obligations.

For Mains: C-295 Aircraft and Significance of its Manufacturing Project.

Why in News?

Recently, Prime Minister of India has laid the foundation stone for the C-295 transport aircraft manufacturing facility in Vadodara to be set up by Airbus Defence and Space S.A., Spain and Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL).

  • This is the first time a private sector company would be manufacturing a full aircraft in the country.

What is the C-295 MW transporter?

  • About:
    • The C-295 is a transport aircraft of 5-10 tonne capacity with contemporary technology.
    • Robust and reliable, it is a versatile and efficient tactical transport aircraft which can perform a number of different missions.

  • Features:
    • The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 11 hours, can carry out multi-role operations under all weather conditions.
    • It can routinely operate day as well as night combat missions from desert to maritime environments.
    • It has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and para dropping of troops and cargo. Short take-off/land from semi-prepared surfaces is another of its features.
  • Replacement:
    • It will replace the Indian Air Force’s ageing fleet of Avro-748 planes.
      • The Avro-748 planes are a British-origin twin-engine turboprop, military transport and freighter with a 6-tonne freight capacity.
  • Project Execution:
    • TASL will jointly execute the project to equip the air force with the new transport aircraft under the Make-in-India initiative in the aerospace sector.
      • Airbus will supply the first 16 aircraft in fly away condition between September 2023 and August 2025 while the remaining 40 will be assembled in India by TASL between September 2026 and 2031 at the rate of eight aircraft per year.

What is the Significance of this Manufacturing Facility?

  • Employment Generation:
    • The TATA Consortium has identified more than 125 in-country MSME suppliers spread over seven states. This will act as a catalyst in employment generation in the aerospace ecosystem of the country.
    • It is expected to generate 600 highly skilled jobs directly, over 3000 indirect jobs, and an additional 3000 medium-skill employment opportunities with more than 42.5 lakh man hours of work within the aerospace and defence sector of India.
  • Boost MSMEs:
  • Reduce Import Dependence:
    • The project will augment domestic aviation manufacturing resulting in reduced import dependence and expected increase in exports.
    • A large number of detail parts, sub-assemblies and major component assemblies of aero structure are scheduled to be manufactured in India.
  • Infrastructure Development:
    • It will involve development of specialized infrastructure in the form of hangars, buildings, aprons and taxiways.
    • Before completion of deliveries, ‘D’ Level servicing facility (MRO) for C-295MW aircraft are scheduled to be set up in India.
    • It is expected that this facility will act as a regional MRO (Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul) hub for various variants of C-295 aircraft.
  • Offset Obligations:
    • Airbus will discharge its offset obligations through direct purchase of eligible products and services from Indian offset partners giving further boost to the economy.
    • In simplest terms, the offset is an obligation by an international player to boost India’s domestic defence industry if India is buying defence equipment from it.

What is the Potential of India’s Civil Aviation Sector?

  • India has a much bigger footprint in civil aviation manufacturing than defence, in addition to being a major market itself. Both Airbus and Boeing, the USA, do significant sourcing from India for their civil programmes.
    • Boeing’s sourcing from India stands at USD 1 billion annually, of which over 60% is in manufacturing
  • India buys manufactured parts and engineering services worth USD 650 million every year from more than 45 Indian suppliers.
  • India, which is moving ahead with the mantra of ‘Make in India’ and ‘Make for the Globe’, continues to enhance its potential by becoming a major manufacturer of transport planes.
  • Since 2007, Airbus has had a wholly domestic-owned design centre in India which has more than 650 engineers who specialise in high-tech aeronautical engineering and work across both fixed- and rotary-wing Airbus aircraft programmes.
  • It is estimated that in the coming 10-15 years, India will need about 2000 more passenger and cargo aircraft.
  • Another major growing area is MRO for which India can emerge as the regional hub.
    • MRO is any action that helps keep or restore an item to its working condition.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question:

Q. International civil aviation laws provide all countries complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above their territory. What do you understand by ‘airspace’? What are the implications of these laws on the space above this airspace? Discuss the challenges which this poses and suggest ways to contain the threat. (2014)

Q. Examine the development of Airports in India through joint ventures under Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model. What are the challenges faced by the authorities in this regard? (2017)

Source: TH

Governance

Warehousing Development

For Prelims: Warehouse Development and Regulatory Authority, Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt

For Mains: Importance and Objectives of WDRA & E-NWR

Why in News?

Recently, a seminar on “e-NWR – An Effective Tool for Promoting Pledge Financing” was organised by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) under the Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) on the foundation day of WDRA.

What is Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority?

  • About:
    • It was constituted in 2010 under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007.
    • It was an initiative of public policy where the benefits of technology had been transferred into benefits for farmer with the objective to make e-NWR a prime tool of trade, increase rural liquidity, increase farmers’ income, reduce post-harvest losses, etc.
  • Objective:
    • The main objective of WDRA is to implement Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR) System in the country.
    • The main functions of the Authority are to make provisions for the development and regulation of warehouses which interalia includes negotiability of warehouse receipts, registration of warehouses, promotion of scientific warehousing of goods, improving fiduciary trust of depositors and banks, enhancing liquidity in rural areas and promoting efficient supply chain.
  • Achievements:
    • There had been an increase in the number of warehouses registered with WDRA and its outreach with banks and farmers had improved exponentially.
    • As of 2021-22, 123 warehouses are registered under WDRA issuing total of 17,975 e-NWR.

What is Negotiable Warehouse Receipt?

  • About:
    • It was launched in 2011 by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
  • Benefits:
    • Farmers can seek loans from banks against the warehouse receipts issued to them against their storage.
    • These receipts issued by the warehouses registered with the WDRA would become a fully negotiable instrument backed by a Central legislation.
  • The NWR in electronic form could be issued either as:
    • Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR):
      • It has negotiability and can be used for deposit and withdrawal of commodities as well as trade transactions such as transfer and Pledge.
      • It was launched in 2017.
    • It has been integrated with the electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) platform by providing an interface between e-NAM and repositories.
    • Electronic Non-Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NNWR), which can be used only for deposit and withdrawal of commodities (generally issued for goods received in the warehouse with pending final assaying reports or if assaying is not desired by the applicant) without the facility of trade / transfer.
What is e-NWR Pledge Finance?
  • Pledging is a process in which the holder of the eNWR will get a loan from the financial institution using the underlying commodity of eNWR as collateral.
  • When a pledge is marked, the eNWR balances will remain in the client’s account (borrower) only but the control on the balance will be with the financial institution.
  • The client will not be able to use the eNWR balances until the pledge in favour of the financial institution is active.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question:

Q. What are the impediments in marketing and supply chain management in developing the food processing industry in India? Can e-commerce help in overcoming this bottleneck? (2016)

Source: PIB

Ethics

Adoption of Self-Driving Cars

For Mains: The Moral Dilemmas Faced by Self-Driving Cars

Why in News?

In a series of lawsuits and a criminal case arising out of fatal Tesla accidents, Tesla faces its biggest challenge since launching Autopilot in 2015.

What are the Moral Dilemmas Self-Driving Cars Face?

  • Predetermined Decisions:
    • Self-driving cars are basically robots that have been programmed using algorithms. So, they are most likely to follow set rules or patterns in all cases.
  • Giving Control to the Driver:
    • One of the biggest dilemmas of self-driving cars is whether it would be right to hand over the control to the driver at the last instant.
    • This will not only raise a question about the ethics of self-driving cars but also about the ethics of the driver.
  • Rightful Deciders of the Ethics of Self-Driving Cars:
    • There is a debate about who should decide the ethics of self-driving cars, according to some.
    • It can be argued that no one is the right owner to decide the ethics of self-driving cases. The decision must lie in the hands of the driver of the car.
  • Program the Car to Make an Impartial Decision:
    • Some also argue that the best way for a self-driving car is to make an impartial decision in case of accidents.
    • They must not discriminate between humans based on age, gender, or other parameters. They should always make the decision that causes the least impact.
  • The Hacking Dilemma:
    • There is always a risk of a cyber-criminal hacking into the car’s system to gain access to sensitive data or to carry out a misdeed.
    • For example, what if the autonomous car is hacked by a cybercriminal and commanded to carry out an accident to implicate the driver?

What are Self Driving Cars or Autonomous Cars?

  • About:
    • An autonomous car is a vehicle capable of sensing its environment and operating without human involvement.
    • A human passenger is not required to take control of the vehicle at any time, nor is a human passenger required to be present in the vehicle at all.
    • An autonomous car can go anywhere a traditional car goes and do everything that an experienced human driver does.
  • Benefits:
    • Reduce traffic congestion
    • Cut transportation costs by 40%
    • Improve walkability and livability
    • Free up parking lots for other uses
    • Reduce urban CO2 emissions by 80% worldwide

Way Forward

As the debate around the topic intensifies due to the increasing adoption of self-driving cars, it is hoped that strict laws and regulations will be developed that can finally answer the questions in a correct, justifiable manner.

Source: TH

Biodiversity & Environment

Rhino Horns are Shrinking

For Prelims: Biodiversity & Environment, Conservation, IUCN Red List, Indian Rhino Vision 2020.

For Mains: Rhinoceroses, its species, threats and conservation.

Why in News?

According to a recent study, the horns of Rhinoceroses may have become smaller over time due to selective pressure of hunting.

  • The study used an interesting research approach—analyzing artwork and photographs of the animal spanning more than five centuries.
  • The study relied on a repository of images maintained by the Netherlands-based Rhino Research Center (RRC).

What are the Findings?

  • The five surviving rhino species (White and Black Rhinos in Africa, and the Greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhino species in Asia) are still threatened by habitat loss and hunting.
  • The rate of decline in horn length was highest in the critically-endangered Sumatran rhino and lowest in the white rhino of Africa, which is the most commonly found species both in the wild and in captivity.
    • This observation follows patterns seen in other animals, such as tusk size in elephants and horn length in wild sheep, which have been driven down by directional selection due to trophy hunting
  • During the age of European imperialism (between the 16th and 20th centuries), rhinos were commonly portrayed as hunting trophies, but since the mid-20th century, they have been increasingly portrayed in a conservation context, reflecting a change in emphasis from a more to less consumptive relationship between humans and rhinos.

What are the Key Facts about Rhino?

  • About:
    • There are five species of rhino – white and black rhinos in Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan, and Sumatran rhino species in Asia.
    • IUCN Red List Status:
    • Black Rhino: Critically endangered. Smaller of the two African species.
    • White Rhino: Near Threatened. Researchers have created an embryo of the northern white rhino by using In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) process.
    • One-Horned Rhino: Vulnerable
    • Javan: Critically Endangered
    • Sumatran Rhino: Critically Endangered. It has gone extinct in Malaysia.
  • Indian Rhino:
    • About
      • Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
      • Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
      • It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
      • They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.

What are the Conservation Efforts in India?

  • The five rhino range nations (India, Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia and Malaysia) have signed a declaration ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.
  • In 2019, the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has begun a project to create DNA profiles of all rhinos in the country.
  • National Rhino Conservation Strategy: It was launched in 2019 to conserve the greater one-horned rhinoceros.
  • Indian Rhino Vision 2020: Launched in 2005, it was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question:

Q. Consider the following statements: (2019)

  1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
  2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
  3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Source: TH

Important Facts For Prelims

Coronal Holes

Why in News?

Recently, NASA captured an image having dark patches on the sun’s surface resembling eyes and a smile.

  • These patches are called ‘Coronal holes’, which can be seen in ultraviolet light but are typically invisible to our eyes.

What are Coronal Holes?

  • About:
    • These are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space.
      • In these regions, the magnetic field is open to interplanetary space, sending solar material out in a high-speed stream of solar wind i.e. geomagnetic storm.
    • They have lower temperatures and appear much darker than their surroundings as they contain little solar material.
    • Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months.
    • The holes are not a unique phenomenon, appearing throughout the sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle.
    • They can last much longer during solar minimum, a period of time when activity on the Sun is substantially diminished.
  • Significance:
    • Coronal Holes are important in understanding the space environment around the earth through which our technology and astronauts’ travel.
What is a Geomagnetic Storm?
  • Geomagnetic storm is a solar storm that occurs during the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots (‘dark’ regions on the Sun that are cooler than the surrounding photosphere - the lowest layer of the solar atmosphere), and can last for a few minutes or hours.
  • It is a major disturbance of Earth's magnetosphere that occurs when there is a very efficient exchange of energy from the solar wind into the space environment surrounding Earth.
    • The magnetosphere shields our home planet from harmful solar and cosmic particle radiation, as well as erosion of the atmosphere by the solar wind – the constant flow of charged particles streaming off the Sun.
  • These storms result from variations in the solar wind that produce major changes in the currents, plasmas, and fields in Earth’s magnetosphere.
    • The solar wind conditions that are effective for creating geomagnetic storms are sustained (for several to many hours) periods of high-speed solar wind, and most importantly, a southward directed solar wind magnetic field (opposite the direction of Earth’s field) at the dayside of the magnetosphere.
    • This condition is effective for transferring energy from the solar wind into Earth’s magnetosphere.
  • The largest storms that result from these conditions are associated with solar Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) where a billion tons or so of plasma from the sun, with its embedded magnetic field, arrives at Earth.
    • CMEs are large ejections of plasma and magnetic fields that originate from the Sun's corona (outermost layer).

UPSC Civil Services Examination Previous Year Question:

Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

  1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
  2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
  3. Power grids could be damaged.
  4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
  5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
  6.  Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
  7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans: (c)
Exp:

  • Solar flares are powerful bursts of energy.
  • The storms can often be observed as beautiful aurorae in our night sky, but they can also cause major disturbances in Earth’s power grids and navigation systems.
  • A massive solar flare erupted from the Sun's surface, disrupting radio waves, telecommunication networks, and power systems by triggering an intense magnetic storm.
  • Scientists have found evidence of an extreme solar 'tsunami' deep within the Earth's ice through analyses of ice cores from Greenland and Antarctica.
  • A magnetic dam is formed which is storing a big mass of plasma. At the end of a solar cycle, this magnetic dam can break, releasing huge amounts of plasma cascading like a tsunami towards the poles.
  • Therefore, statements 1, 3, 4, 6 & 7 are correct. Hence option (c) is correct.

Source: IE

close
SMS Alerts
Share Page
images-2

 
images-2
× Snow